1

I tend to find this verse confusing. What's your understanding Romans 9:16, NIV: "It does not, therefore, depend on human desire or effort, but on God's mercy."

6
  • What do you think the IT is that Paul is referring to? May 21 at 19:28
  • Hi Diligent Writers, welcome to Stack Exchange, we are glad you are here. Could you expand just a little on your question, this would help solicit solid answers. Please be sure to take the site tour and read up on how this site is a little different than other sites around the web. Thanks! May 21 at 22:04
  • My understanding of v16 - Some see what God has accomplished through them, and they begin reasoning, “God must use me because of my great faithfulness.” But that is not the case. God has never had anyone qualified working for Him yet. God is a lot more merciful than we are faithful.
    – Dave
    May 21 at 23:44
  • The text is self explanatory. If you have difficulty understanding it, I suggest you give us more information and quote some more of the context. Please see the Tour and the Help (below, bottom right) as to the purpose and the functioning of the website. Welcome to BH.
    – Nigel J
    May 22 at 8:01
  • Better way to format could be to ask "Is Gods' mercy arbitrary" in this verse, if so how can it be impartial justice. If that's what your confused about. The reason for God's election or mercy is based on his omniscience; his chosing of the righteous is based on his foreknowledge and plans. We cannot object to his mercy, no matter how good you think you run. It's about Israel's unconditional national election (not salvation) despite their wickedness. Man has no right to question God's works and mercy.
    – Michael16
    May 22 at 13:19