Acts 12:22 is usually translated something like

"And they began to shout, “This is the voice of a god, not a man!”"

Can the word translated 'of a god' (Θεοῦ, theou) instead be translated as 'of God', simply in terms of grammar?

  • 1
    Yes it could; but since the polytheistic Roman populace did not really believe in one supreme God, such a translation is a stretch.
    – Dottard
    May 14 at 9:51
  • @Dottard Thanks for this - got it. So the 'they' here refers to pagans. May 14 at 16:29
  • 1
    The "They" is almost certainly pagans because Jews were unlikely to attend such a gathering. However, i am sure that one or two Jews were there but the extent to which they participated in such a clamor is unknown but (hopefully) unlikely.
    – Dottard
    May 14 at 20:46
  • I think would be incorrect to translate 'of God', because we are take note of the inner structure of the sentence. The two terms translated 'god' and 'man' are both to the genitive case. The unique semantical difference between them is the implied (i.e. not expressed by words) affirmative particle related to the first term ('god'), and the explicit negative particle related to the second term ('man'). (continue) Jul 11 at 14:48
  • The logical structure of the last part of the sentence can be termed A = B; A ≠ C, where 'A' is 'Herod's voice'; 'B' = 'god'; 'C' = 'man'. No translator never ventured (as I know) - correctly - to translate the last part of the verse "...not of (the) Man!", since the verse will become unintelligible, and the people shout claim should be an hyper-camp claim, beyond every credibility. So, the sole manner to translate here 'theou' is 'of a god', or alike. Jul 11 at 14:48

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