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In Vulgate in Jacob 5:14, it says "Infirmatur quis in vobis?". How is that grammatical? Should not it use the partitive genitive "vestrum" instead of "in vobis"? Or at least "inter vos"? I mean, as far as I know, it is always translated as more-or-less "Is somebody suffering among you?". But "Infirmatur quis in vobis?" would mean "Is somebody suffering inside you?", right?

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  • Perhaps this type of questions would receive better answers on Latin.SE ?
    – Lucian
    May 6 '21 at 22:46
  • 2
    @Lucian Greek questions are commonly answered on SE-BH. I don't see why Latin should not be, also. Up-voted +1.
    – Nigel J
    May 7 '21 at 1:51
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In Harper’s Latin Dictionary: A New Latin Dictionary Founded on the Translation of Freund’s Latin-German Lexicon,1

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In Latin Grammar together with a Systematic Treatment of Latin Composition,2

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In A Copious and Critical Latin-English Lexicon, Founded on the Larger Latin-German Lexicon of Dr. William Freund,3

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In New Latin Grammar,4

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Footnotes

        1 p. 911, 1. in, I., A., 2.
        2 Part 2, p. 43, Rem. 75
        3 p. 768, 1. in, I., 2.
        4 §221, p. 133–134

In other words, the preposition in with a word declined in the ablative case (as vobis is) can function equivalent to a partitive genitive with the meaning of “among.”


References

Andrews, Erin Allen. A Copious and Critical Latin-English Lexicon, Founded on the Larger Latin-German Lexicon of Dr. William Freund. London: Ginn, 1876.

Allen, Joseph Henry; Greenough, James Bradstreet. New Latin Grammar. Ed. Greenough, James Bradstreet; Howard, A. A.; D’ooge, Benjamin L.; Kittredge, G. L. Boston: Ginn, 1916.

Fischer, Gustavus. Latin Grammar together with a Systematic Treatment of Latin Composition. Part 2. New York: Schermerhorn, 1876.

Lewis, Charlton T.; Short, Charles. Harper’s Latin Dictionary: A New Latin Dictionary Founded on the Translation of Freund’s Latin-German Lexicon. New York: Harper & Brothers, 1891.

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  • 1
    What about 'among (= gen. part.)' saying rather that 'among' can be equivalent to a partitive genitive? Is saying it in reverse really the same thing?
    – user21676
    May 7 '21 at 15:09

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