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... yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live. [1 cor 8:6]NIV

I just want to understand how Father, Son work together in Trinity. If Father does something does that mean Son cannot do that thing and is dependent on the Father for that thing? e.g. I heard a televangelist say that Father is the One who says or have all the original ideas and is the source of all, and Son does what the Father says and brings whatever the Father says into existence. So Son is the doer and He does it by the Holy Spirit.

So I'm curious, if the Father is the source and have all the ideas, then does that mean Son has no ideas of His own and is not the source of anything? If that is true then how can Son still be God?

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  • Welcome to Bible Hermeneutics SE and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others. – agarza May 5 at 16:43
  • You will need to clarify what exactly you are seeking. There are multiple ways of answering this question as the quoted text covers many issues with great profundity. Please edit so that you reference the version from which you quoted. – Nigel J May 5 at 17:29
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    It would be best to ask this question on Christianity.SE. – Lucian May 5 at 18:31
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    You want to understand the detailed inner workings of the Trinity? - that would make you God. Do not put too much faith in the exegesis of some televangelists, some of whom are much better dramatists than exegetes. – Dottard May 5 at 23:08
  • hi I'm a new member but my questions keep getting closed by people. I'm not sure why. I've tried to follow all guidelines, provided scripture references.. Not a very helpful site I must say... will not post here again. Admin please take notice. thanks. – Zakria Samuel May 11 at 2:14
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The Bible speaks with full consistency regarding the Godhead. It clearly teaches us that God is One, and that it is the Father who is God.

In Jesus' own prayer for his disciples he says:

These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. (John 17:1-3)

Jesus was clear that the Father, whom he addressed, was "the only true God." He prayed of his Father that his disciples would know Him (the Father) and that they would also know "Jesus Christ" whom the Father had sent. It follows that Jesus was declaring his Father as the only true God, and was not counting himself to be God. If one stops to think of it for but a moment, would God pray to God--to Himself? And is a son his father; or is a father his son? Are son and father equals?

Other texts that help to clarify the Bible's teaching include the following:

For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; (1 Timothy 2:5)

If Christ Jesus is a man, then, as a man, he cannot be God, because . . .

God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good? (Numbers 23:19)

We have further evidence of this fact as we compare the following two verses.

Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: (James 1:13)

Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. (Matthew 4:1)

Jesus, as a man, was tempted . . . yet God cannot be tempted. Therefore, Jesus, as a man, cannot have been God. (Jesus was, however, possessed by God--that is the meaning of "Immanuel"; "God with us.")

The "Son of God" and the "Son of Man" are synonymous terms in the Bible, both denoting the Sonship of Jesus Christ, as exemplified in the following text:

But Jesus held his peace. And the high priest answered and said unto him, I adjure thee by the living God, that thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God. Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. (Matthew 26:63-64)

Jews have always been monotheists, as were the early Christians. The concept of the Trinity, perhaps inspired by many pagan belief systems, such as the Hindu Triad, made its way into the Christian belief system several centuries after Christ. It is not a concept that is taught in the Bible, though Trinitarians interpret a "Trinitarian formula" to exist in some key verses of the New Testament.

The hermeneutically correct answer to your question cannot be given within a Trinitarian context, as neither the word "Trinity" nor any of the trinitarian vocabulary exists in the Bible. None of these terms have any scriptural basis:

  • beings
  • coeternal
  • coeval
  • consubstantial
  • God the Holy Ghost/Spirit
  • God the Son
  • Gods *
  • hypostases
  • individuals
  • members *
  • procession
  • spiration
  • three spirits *
  • three-fold *
  • threesome
  • Trinitarian
  • Trinitarianism
  • Trinity
  • triune
  • triunity

* With reference to the true God, our Creator.

Note that the Trinitarian phrase "God the Son" does not exist in the Bible. If the Son had been called "God", the Bible would then have contradicted itself, for the immortal God (see 1 Timothy 1:17) would have died, and the untemptable God would have been tempted. But "God" is the Father, and the Son is filled by the Father's spirit.

Jesus, as a man, lived as our Example, showing us how we, too, may live in perfect obedience to our Father's will. The Father was present within Jesus, and yet, as Man, Jesus submitted to the will of the Father. The exact manner in which divinity and humanity were combined in Jesus' person is a mystery which cannot be explained: but that the two natures were both present in him cannot be denied.

Possessed by God and living as our mediator, our advocate, our comforter, and our sacrifice as the Lamb of God, Jesus is called our "Lord." In the New Testament, the terms "Lord" and "God" are held distinct from each other, as 1 Corinthians 8:6 demonstrates. This helps us to understand that there is a clear distinction to be made between them.

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  • thanks. May I know are you Jewish, JW or Mormon? – Zakria Samuel May 7 at 2:24
  • Ethnically I have some Jewish blood, but I am Christian with respect to my religion. I am neither JW nor Mormon. – Polyhat May 7 at 2:30
  • Thanks. that's interesting because I thought Christians always viewed Jesus as God. – Zakria Samuel May 7 at 17:36
  • @ZakriaSamuel I do believe that Jesus was God. But his humanity was not, nor could possibly have been, God. This is why there are so many misunderstandings on this subject: Jesus was BOTH God and Man. The "Man" part was NOT God. And in the Bible, the Son of Man (Jesus) is never directly said to be God. God is a single Being, but, being omnipresent, could be in Jesus while still being in Heaven. Jesus, as a Man, endured what we must in order to be our Example and to make a perfect atonement for our sins. The actual manner of joining his two natures is an incomprehensible mystery to us. – Polyhat May 7 at 18:02
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Can you kindly explain [the following] verse in detail?

1 Corinthians 8:6: "[For] us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him."

Please note that I attempted to answer your similar, previous question yesterday here.

Welcome to the site. I hope my response to that question helps you out. -- Xeno

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