Acts 2:17 (ESV):
“‘And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit on all flesh, and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams;
Someone recently brought up this verse (among others) in an answer that argues against the personhood of the Holy Spirit. To be honest, I don't find the answer's argument particularly that convincing, given that there is no explicit deductive argument connecting the dots in a logical manner. Instead, the answer attempts to make its case by way of posing rhetorical questions, in the hope that they are too hard to be answered.
Question: How can the Holy Spirit simultaneously be a person and "pourable"? Are the two attributes compatible or incompatible?
To clarify: I'm interested in answers that either (1) show logically how 'pourability' precludes 'personhood' or (2) show how both attributes are perfectly compatible.