The word God in Greek is Θεὸς ("theos") – no differentiation ‘g’ or ‘G’ & god is a righteous servant of God, a king, a prophet, or a Messiah etc…

Hebrews 1:8

8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.

taking into account the following;

theos / god being satan

2 Corinthians 4:4 The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel that displays the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.


Hebrews 1:9

9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, EVEN THY GOD, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

H 1:9 implies that Jesus has a God unless God is anointing God & does God have fellows.


Hebrews 1 verses 1-2 which read: 1God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

Point: if Jesus created the the universe how can God speak to Jesus in the last days clearly Jesus is only the mouth piece of God. appointed heir cannot be appointed heir if you already are God and own everything.

Should Hebrews 1:8-9 read as follows

8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, o god, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. 9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.


  1. v9 can God anoint God
  2. v9 Can God have Fellows
  3. v6 - should it be Homage Not Worship - does not equate to God
  4. should it be ages Not universe
  5. v2 - spoke in the 'last days' not from the beginning
  6. v2 - 'appointed heir'
  • 1
    Why have you quoted KJV then NIV then KJV? Such behaviour smacks of copy and pasting what others have written. The 'man' Jesus was made of atoms, as are all men. The spirit that moved the 'man' Jesus, however, was exclusively the Spirit of God himself. The anointing of the 'man' Jesus was for mankind's benefit, not Jesus' or God's. When you finally recognise Jesus, you will esteem him above your fellows as well.
    – enegue
    Apr 22, 2021 at 14:49
  • 3
    @enegue Technically that's the heresy of Apollinarianism. Jesus has a human soul - He is not a shell for the Spirit of God. "Nevertheless not my will, but your will be done." Apr 22, 2021 at 17:21
  • 1) What is your source for stating that Θεος is 'a righteous servant of God, a king, a prophet, or a Messiah etc…' ? 2) The 'god of this age' is in contrast to the 'eternal God'. One is created in association with the age, the other is uncreated and ever in existence. 3) 'God was the word' (John 1:2) reveals that Deity which existed in the beginning (and therefore is eternal) is the one who was manifested in flesh.
    – Nigel J
    Apr 22, 2021 at 18:45
  • @SolaGratia A 'soul' is something one 'IS', not something one 'HAS' -- "... and man BECAME a living soul" (Genesis 2:7). The spirit that moved that soul (the 'man' Jesus) was exclusively the Spirit of God himself.
    – enegue
    Apr 22, 2021 at 20:55
  • 1
    @enegue Depends if you have a bipartite or tripartite view of man. If man has a spirit that is distinct from the mind, then Chalcedonians would say that Jesus had a distinct human spirit. If man just has body and mind, the bipartite view, then Jesus wouldn't have a human spirit.
    – curiousdannii
    Apr 22, 2021 at 22:59

6 Answers 6


Greek is NOT like Hebrew - the word god/theos is never applied to anything or anyone but the true God of heaven with the following exceptions -

  • In a derogatory sense when discussing a false god such as Phil 3:19, "Their destiny is destruction, their god is their stomach, and their glory is in their shame. Their mind is set on earthly things."
  • Quoting the Hebrew to confound the Jews such as in John 10:34 (plural)
  • A reference to (false) pagan deities, Acts 28:6, 7:40, 43, 12:22, 14:11, 19:26, 37, 1 Cor 8:5, etc
  • A reference to Satan being falsely attributed the attributes of God, 2 Thess 2:4, 2 Cor 4:4, Gal 4:8b.

That is, unlike the Hebrew, the NT never attributes true deity (as distinct from false deity) to a person. Thus, passages like John 1:18, Matt 1:23, 2 Peter 1:1, 1 John 1:20 (acc to BDAG), Heb 1:8, 9, John 20:28, Titus 2;13, etc, attribute full deity to Christ and so must be translated with a "G", ie, God in fullest sense.

This is confirmed in Heb 1 where Jesus is given the following attributions:

  • He made the universe (v2)
  • He upholds the universe by His powerful word (V3)
  • He sits on the right hand of the majesty in heaven (V3)
  • He is worshiped by angels (V6)
  • He has an eternal throne (V8)
  • He is addresses as "God" by God (V8, 9)
  • The quote to "the Lord" in V10-12 is from the Psalm 102:25-27 which refers to the LORD, Jehovah. That is, Heb 1:10-12 indirectly refers to Jesus as the Jehovah of the OT.

Let there be no doubt that Heb 1 unambiguously refers to Jesus as God in the fullest and complete sense.

  • Very insightful use of Psalm 102, upvoted +1 Apr 23, 2021 at 0:19
  • 1
    "the NT never attributes true deity (as distinct from false deity) to a person." How can this be reconciled with "attribute full deity to Christ"? Apr 26, 2021 at 14:06
  • @OneGodtheFather - that is the point - the above texts I quoted absolutely affirm that Jesus was God in the fullest sense!
    – Dottard
    Apr 26, 2021 at 20:27
  • 1
    Heb 1 'unambiguously' refers to Jesus as not God, says my unitarian eye. It states there is God, there is the Son, and God appoints the Son (Heb 1:1-2). Can you say how trinitarianism paraphrases the use of 'God' here? Apr 27, 2021 at 16:31
  • 1
    @Dottard How can part of the chapter deny it, but the chapter 'unambiguously' state it? That is my question - I am not trying to put words in your mouth, but asking you for clarification of the point, which seems very important to me! Apr 27, 2021 at 20:26

Since the same subject, the υἱός and θεός is said to have created the world (Hebrews 1:2; 1:10), then it is clear that this Son and God is not part of the world, and thus, uncreated, just like the Father is uncreated. And just like the Father is Uncreated-Creator, so also the Son is Uncreated-Creator of the created order of things - the universe. You can write therefore both 'god' and 'God' but with a meaning that He, the Son, has the same dignity as He, the Father, and if you hold this truthful theology, then flaws in English grammar conventions will be forgiven to you :)

  • I upvoted your answer - The One who creates all things cannot Himself be created - good point! +1
    – Dottard
    Apr 23, 2021 at 5:45
  • 1
    @Dottard Thanks, dear Dottard. The Trinity is a logical necessity that follows from a correct and conscientious reading of the New Testament. Your answer is just fine! Apr 23, 2021 at 5:54

Hebrews 1:8-should it be "god" or "God" ?

Simply put, it should be "God".

Not sure why I, an unabashed non-trinitarian, am even bothering to get in again on this heavily biased towards the Trinitarian belief, site. I only do so because I have answered this Q. before (although posed somewhat differently, with the emphasis being on "case"), but it hasn't come up as a previous reference. This could have been because of it not being well received, although I prefer to think that it was hard to understand my reasoning. So, for what it's worth, here again is my answer, reproduced from last May, which also incorporates verse 9. Maybe we have some more discerning people now towards my way of thinking, or maybe not. Depending on how this is received, will be the deciding factor on whether I truly get back into the fray or not.......

Nominative, or, vocative? The answer may well be in the beholding. Names, or even titles (but not limited to these), that are being addressed directly, are said to be in the vocative case. "The Son" here is being merely referenced and is in the accusative case and is therefore the direct object and not the subject of the sentence. "God", even though the subject of the sentence, is not being addressed directly here, so does not need to be in the vocative case. Also, the definite article "the", precedes "God", in all three instances in the Greek, and in Greek, the definite article does not have a vocative case. So, as God is not being addressed directly and is preceded by the definite article, the Greek utilizes the nominative case, as is permitted.

As is often the case in the NASB, as is the case in many a modern day translation, we suffer from "Trinitarian" bias, in the translating of verse 8. The Greek for..."Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever"...(the translation being an unabashed attempt to conflate Jesus with God), is better represented in English as follows..."God is your throne for ever and ever"...and some translations even, as already pointed out in an earlier answer, lean in this direction. When then considering (in Verse 9) the other two instances, already in question, it becomes blatantly clear that God is a separate spiritual entity, and Father to (the only begotten), Jesus.... his God, who anointed him with the oil of exultation, thus singling him(not himself) out, rather than any of the other angels.

  • 4
    +1 Don't give up! Yes, this site has a trinitarian bias, but it only takes a few active non-trinitarians to turn the tide. And after 1600+ years, it's time for the turning of the tide, IMO. Apr 27, 2021 at 23:01
  • 1
    @One God the Father- Well, hello there! Glad to make your acquaintance. Your user handle needs no explanation. Apart from the trinitarian bias being so exasperating, I was also turned off by the anonymous and therefore cowardly down voting. Although comments here are not for discussion, I did notice your user name a few times when breezing through recent questions, so will be taking a closer look at you, particularly as I received another four, actually five now, upvotes for previous posts. I will be checking those posts now for any possible comments.... Apr 28, 2021 at 0:53
  • 1
    @OldeEnglish welcome back, and upvoted +1--not because I fully agree with your conclusion, but because your answer is useful (which is what the votes are supposed to be about). I've certainly noticed various leanings on the site as well, and believe this site best achieves its intended purpose with a chorus of voices. Thanks for this contribution. Apr 28, 2021 at 4:29
  • @HoldToTheRod-Appreciated! Apr 28, 2021 at 10:11

Hebrews 8ff is a citation from the Psalms

Ps 45 7-8

Your divine throne endures for ever and ever. Your royal scepter is a scepter of equity; you love righteousness and hate wickedness. Therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness above your fellows;


Of old thou didst lay the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of thy hands. They will perish, but thou dost endure; they will all wear out like a garment. Thou changest them like raiment, and they pass away; but thou art the same, and thy years have no end. The children of thy servants shall dwell secure; their posterity shall be established before thee.

Ps 110:1

The LORD says to my lord: "Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool."

These words in the Psalms are directed to God. That is why they sound like directed to God, also when cited.

The message is not that Jesus is God, but that God has installed him as the King of His Kingdom, sitting at His right.


What does Jesus’ standing or sitting at the “right hand of the majesty” imply? Is it really saying that he, Jesus, is the center of heavenly power and authority, or is it saying that he is submissive to Someone higher? How are we to reconcile Heb 1:3 with Acts 5:31; 7:55 & 56; Eph 1:20 and 1Pet 3:22? Reading Matt 20:20-23 might help us form a clearer mental picture of the Father and Son and their seating arrangement.

  • Welcome to Bible Hermeneutics SE and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others.
    – agarza
    Apr 23, 2021 at 3:47
  • thank you for your comments, the problem in my opinion is H 1:9 can a God have a God & can God anoint God. Also can God have other fellows ? Apr 23, 2021 at 8:59
  • I have edited the question and added Hebrews 1 verses 1-2 - which sheds further light. God spoke to Jesus in the last days and God appointed Jesus as heir of everything. You cannot be appointed heir if you own it already. Apr 23, 2021 at 9:37
  • This answer neglects the mystery of the trinity. There are plenty of Scriptures that make it clear, when taken in context and as a whole that Jesus is God, specifically God the Son. The mystery of the Son being subject to the Father, both being God, is--well a mystery. But our not understanding it does not negate the truth of the Scripture.
    – bob
    Apr 23, 2021 at 13:35
  • 3
    @bob there was no mystery until they invented the trinity
    – steveowen
    Apr 26, 2021 at 9:37

Again and again we encounter analysis of a text never intended to stand alone in understanding a matter. God has provided a multi-faceted approach to revelation that is seen from Gen to Rev through authors millennia apart who corroborate one another.

Jesus is presented as a man only - never God. Certainly there are some texts that may be read into to form a view that Jesus is more than a man, or even an equal to the Highest God. But these are based on pre-conceived notions surfacing centuries after the apostles.

Even in the answers here, God's word is used to elevate Jesus to a place not his.

  • He (Jesus) made the universe. The word is aiōnas (ages) and has nothing to do with universe or world, yet it gets quoted all the time anyway. Heb 1:2
  • He sits on the right hand of the majesty in heaven (V3) He sits on the right of GOD ~12 verses, the Father ~2 verses. What can be deduced from this is; Jesus is not God, the Father and God are the same one, God IS the Father as the entire NT points out repeatedly.

Thus Jesus, not being God,

  • is rightly raised from the dead by God,
  • appointed heir of all things by God,
  • exalted by God
  • anointed by God

Because it is only His to give to His son. The NT, when read with humility and free from abstracts of tradition, reveal a Jesus who could never be God, a God who could never 'empty' Himself to be not God and still be a man who could do all the things Jesus did.

did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped Phil 2:5

God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name v9

glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, since you have given him authority over all flesh John 17:1

So to Heb 1:8 We know there are many called god through the ages. But there is only one God. Even if we momentarily suppose a 3in1 God, they are allegedly all equal, all God.

Here Jesus is decidedly NOT equal in anything! He is granted a station he has never had before - heir, exalted above all other names and above his companions. The Father is greater in every way at every moment forever.

You have loved righteousness and have hated wickedness; because of this, God, Your God, has anointed You

Why is this such a big deal? When would God ever find Himself in a place where, 'because', and then He is made more than He presently is? Never!

Jesus as the man of flesh alone, did have to choose between righteousness and wickedness - his whole mortal life. There was NO backstop, no second chance. IF he sinned he would die and never be raised again. That isn't the Eternal God we're talking about, but His son.

Sit at My right hand, until I may place Your enemies as a footstool for Your feet

If Jesus is also God, he should, now ascended, exalted, made heir of all, be able to subdue his own enemies. But no. Again, he is but a man, now immortal, but still a man and not God - waiting on his God to follow through on His promises at the appointed time.

That's why Stephen was stoned - he saw the ascended Jesus - his Lord and Master in the place where he said he would go. Not by going there of himself, but be taken there by his God. Mark 16:19

Indeed, as v5 points out in perfect harmony -

You are my Son; today I have begotten You

God made His own son, made him Lord, made him the Christ Acts 2:36 Made him everything he needed to be Saviour and to accomplish what he was sent to do as the logos of God become flesh.


An honest and exegetical study of true worship will show that it may be given to anyone we choose to serve, honour and even obey. The insistence that to worship Jesus means he must be God is folly. God says to worship no other god, to worship Him only - as God! Jesus, having accomplished his mission to save all creation from doom is worthy of great praise - not because he is God - but because he is NOT!

Made like us in every respect Heb 2:17, this mortal man won against the prince of evil, how? With his God by his side. Now, rightly, he is at God's side as His amazing son - the second and last Adam.

Let all God’s angels worship him. Heb 1:6


  • 1
    i have amended to list the issues that Hebrews causes - a standpoint needs evidence not a lack of understanding of the mystery of trinity. Other passages may be arguable but from what I have read from both sides of the opinion - Hebrews does not provide evidence that Jesus is God - this appear to be very weak. Apr 26, 2021 at 9:10
  • 1
    @Adam - there was nothing constructive in your last comment. Please ensure you focus feedback to specific points, and ensure you're following the Code of Conduct in how you speak to all users, regardless of whether you agree with their viewpoints. Everybody disagrees with somebody here - let's do it in as friendly and helpful a manner as possible.
    – Steve Taylor
    Apr 26, 2021 at 12:39
  • @steve Taylor...I don't recall what it was...so if its deleted where is the evidence? No one reads fine print btw!
    – Adam
    Apr 27, 2021 at 20:47
  • 1
    @Adam - that's why I'm reminding you now - do read it again if you're at all unsure, it's only a two minute read. To date, ten of your comments have been flagged as hostile or unfriendly. If you're unsure how to interact with others in a friendly and kind manner, consider how more experienced users give the same critiques. There are lots of good examples on this site.
    – Steve Taylor
    Apr 27, 2021 at 21:24

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