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And Jesus said, 'Who is it that touched me?' and all denying, Peter and those with him said, 'Master, the multitudes press thee, and throng thee, and thou dost say, Who is it that touched me!'

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Why did Jesus not know who touched him in Luke 8:45?

The question assumes that Jesus did not know who touched him in Luke 8:45.

46 But Jesus said, “Someone touched me; I know that power has gone out from me.”

People were crowding him and touching him. Yet, Jesus singled out a special instance of touching by someone's faith. He raised the question in order for that person to confess. Confession is good for the soul.

47 Then the woman, seeing that she could not go unnoticed, came trembling and fell at his feet. In the presence of all the people, she told why she had touched him and how she had been instantly healed.

Now everyone knows and her act serves as a testimony for them and for us. Being as gracious as ever, Jesus said to her,

48 “Daughter, your faith has healed you. Go in peace.”

Why did Jesus not know who touched him in Luke 8:45?

There is no need to assume that Jesus did not know who touched him in Luke 8:45. A better question is this: Why did Jesus ask: Who touched me in Luke 8:45?

So that the woman would confess and her act would become a testimony for the world to see.

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  • I agree - this is how I’ve always interpreted the passage! – Gremosa Apr 15 at 15:08
  • I would add that not just the confession, but also for her to fully express her faith. (Luke 8:48) – agarza Apr 15 at 15:37
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Why did Jesus not know who touched him? Luke 8:45

Jesus said, “Who is the one who touched Me?” And while they were all denying it, Peter said, “Master, the people are crowding and pressing in on You.”

Jesus was a finite, mortal human who depended on God for everything - his miracles, his words, his decisions and plans.

And Jesus grew in wisdom and stature... Luk2 2:52

I have not spoken on My own, but the Father who sent Me has commanded Me what to say and how to say it. John 12:49

Jesus didn't have the power or wisdom or knowledge of God while he was on the earth in his flesh and blood body.

Even after his being raised and drawn up to heaven with the Father, he is still not privy to everything, as the Father still gives him what he needs to say. Rev 1:1

So, Jesus is not all knowing - because he either had stopped being God while a man, OR he was never God to begin with and was a man only as he said in John 8:40

But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do.

Clearly this passage rules out the 'stopped being God' idea, as it says he heard the truth from God.

If he was God and all-knowing, he could hardly hear from God if he was God. Either he was - according to men's wisdom, or he wasn't - according to the inspired text.

Luke 8:45 is just one of hundreds of passages that says he wasn't!

That's why he didn't know who touched him - just as we wouldn't either.

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  • Does this mean that this woman is dammed because Jesus doesn't know her ? – Alex Balilo Apr 15 at 4:45
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    By this same reasoning, God in the garden wasn't God, since he didn't know where Adam was. – The Chaz 2.0 Apr 15 at 4:53
  • If he chooses to do things in a certain way(e.g. healing a blind man by a process involving dirt, another by his word), should he then be judged inferior simply because he did not do so instantaneously(e.g. Naaman)? – user21676 Apr 15 at 11:12
  • This passage indeed might be hard for monothelite Trinitarians to explain, but you're overstating how difficult it is for the majority of Trinitarians, who are Chalcedonian. – curiousdannii Apr 15 at 14:46

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