In his response to the query of the Sadducees about the resurrection, Jesus says:
Jesus replied, “The people of this age marry and are given in marriage. 35 But those who are considered worthy of taking part in the age to come and in the resurrection from the dead will neither marry nor be given in marriage, 36 and they can no longer die; for they are like the angels. They are God’s children, since they are children of the resurrection. 37 But in the account of the burning bush, even Moses showed that the dead rise, for he calls the Lord ‘the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.’ 38 He is not the God of the dead, but of the living, for to him all are alive.” (Luke 20:34-38. NIV)
Can we say that verse 38 is the result (i.e., derived from) of the previous verse? In other words, He being the God of the living is deduced from the reference in Exodus? Or rather this statement in verse 38 is standalone and not dependent on the previous verse?