1 Corinthians 3:16 English Standard Version

Do you not know that you are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you?

Let's define a Christian as one who has the Spirit dwells in him.

John 13:27

As soon as Judas took the bread, Satan entered into him. So Jesus told him, "What you are about to do, do quickly."

Was Judas a Christian?

  • 1
    Judas died before Pentecost, so how would 1 Cor 3:16 be relevant?
    – curiousdannii
    Mar 30 at 2:16
  • No! Acts 1:25, "to occupy this ministry and apostleship from which Judas turned aside to go to his own place
    – Mr. Bond
    Mar 30 at 3:22
  • I said no in my answer and accidently clicked the answer but I was not finished. Jesus said at John 17:12, "While I was with them, I was keeping them in Thy name which Thou hast given Me; and I guarded them, and not one of them perished but the son of perdition, that the Scripture might be fulfilled." The phrase, "Son of perdition" means son of hell. Bottom line, even if Judas made it to Pentecost he still would not have been a Christian.
    – Mr. Bond
    Mar 30 at 3:36

[During his life] was Judas [labeled] a "Christian" ( Χριστιανούς )? - No.

Although Judas was listed as a disciple of Jesus in Luke 6:16, Judas would not have been labeled "Christian" since he was not alive to attend the church at Antioch - based on Acts 1:16-19.

Acts 11:26

The disciples were called Christians first at Antioch.

  • 3
    This might suggest Stephen was not a Christian martyr.
    – Henry
    Mar 29 at 22:13

Judas could not have been a ‘christian’ - using your definition or understanding of this word ..

Do you not know that you are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you?

For The ‘spirit’ [Gods spirit] to dwell in you, your body has/had to be first ‘bought’, redeemed, - at a price.

1 COR 6:20 for you were bought with a price.

And then ‘cleansed’ with the blood of Jesus - and in the time of Judas Jesus hadn’t died yet! So the price hadn’t yet been paid, and the cleaning blood hadn’t yet been shed.

Gods ‘Spirit’ dwells in a temple, and, the temple needs to be ‘clean’. Your body is a ‘temple’ because of what Jesus accomplished through the cross. And, once your ‘body’ is Gods (Romans 12:1-3), then the ‘other’ unclean/evil spirits can’t use it.

The only spirit Judas had was the wrong one!

  • That’s incorrect that the Holy Spirit AND an unclean spirit cannot cohabitate the same person. Saul was both able to prophecy and was tormented by an unclean spirit. And he did that whilst seeking to kill David. The fact that the early Church made a point to deliver people and avoided a cohabitation doesn’t mean it’s not possible or is not happening today. Mar 29 at 23:57
  • @Nihil Sine Deo ? - no one ‘pre’ Jesus (that is, no one in the O.T.) could be ‘inhabited’ by the Holy Spirit. The HS came ’on’ them, not ‘in’ them. For the exact reason I outlined! Where as, evil spirits could inhabit people.
    – Dave
    Mar 30 at 0:51
  • That is incorrect. “And as he spoke to me, the Spirit entered into me and set me on my feet, and I heard him speaking to me.” ‭‭Ezekiel‬ ‭2:2‬ The Holy Spirit HAD to be inside a person to use that person. You don’t drive a car from the outside without also having access to the interior. “1Sam19:20‬ the spirit of God came upon על the messengers of Saul, and they also prophesied”. The same word על is used elsewhere to mean INTO על like Gen40:11. Your assumption is inconsistent with how the Holy Spirit works in the NT. He works from inside a person. Why would the NT contradict the OT? Mar 30 at 1:26
  • The mechanism for the Holy Spirit to use a person is by their spirit and/or their soul which acts on the body and the soul and spirit are inside the body. Mar 30 at 1:28
  • @Nihil Sine Deo ‪Well, this can’t/won’t be resolved via comments - so let’s leave this [for now] and just disagree. But, I do agree that the Holy Spirit can only ‘speak’ to your spirit - and that’s what the passage from Ezekiel says - but the Holy Spirit could not stay [reside] ‘in’ him! And that is a difference between the Old and the New - and it isn’t a contradiction, it’s a change! ‬
    – Dave
    Mar 30 at 2:37

No, Christians did not exist until it was intentionally made impossible for believers in/followers of Jesus to enjoy the "umbrella" of Judaism's special standing in Rome as a legal religion.

Allow me to explain...

In Rome, everyone was expected/required, on pain of death, to acknowledge and participate in the Imperial Cult.

At some point in time, there was such a significant backlash towards those who held that Jesus was the Messiah that they devised a way to expel the Jesus cult from Judaism. At that point the Jesus cult became an illegal religion.

So it is anachronistic to discuss Judas' status as a "Christian." Christianity had not become a thing.

So the real questions are:

  • was Judas part of the cult surrounding Jesus. To which the answer is YES.

  • was Jesus chosen for redemption? NO.

Peter was someone who betrays Christ but by the grace of God repents and is redeemed.

Judas (named after the enemy of Hellenism - and the NT authors were Hellenists) - was not chosen by God for ultimate salvation.

Paul uses the imagery of pottery. It is entirely up to the discretion of the potter whether his pot will be one used for great or hateful purposes. "I will have mercy on whom I choose to have mercy."

Alas, Judas was betrayed and was decidedly not ultimately saved. He was hardened in his sin and wrath was rained upon him. Tsk, tsk.


““But when the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness about me. And you also will bear witness, because you have been with me from the beginning.” ‭‭John‬ ‭15:26-27‬ ‭

This says they did not have the Holy Spirit

“And when he had said this, he breathed on them and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit.” ‭‭John‬ ‭20:22‬ ‭

This shows that Judas was not present when they did receive the Holy Spirit

“Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.” ‭‭John‬ ‭7:39‬ ‭

This confirms that the Spirit had not yet been given prior to the Crucifixion and resurrection.


Judas could not have had the Holy Spirit residing in him, as the disciples didn’t either.

The Spirit appears to have been removed from men as a permanent resident in Genesis

“Then the Lord said, “My Spirit shall not abide in man forever, for he is flesh”” ‭‭Genesis‬ ‭6:3‬ ‭

But returned once man could be redeemed

“The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear its sound, but you do not know where it comes from or where it goes. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit.”” ‭‭John‬ ‭3:8‬ ‭

Which connected to

“But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.” ‭‭John‬ ‭1:12-13‬ ‭

These who believed also were born of God, whereas many disciples abandoned Jesus and Judas though chosen by Jesus was a “devil”

“But there are some of you who do not believe.” (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.)

Jesus answered them, “Did I not choose you, the twelve? And yet one of you is a devil.”” ‭‭John‬ ‭6:64, 70‬ ‭

Being born of the Spirit and in dwelt with the Spirit could only take place after the resurrection.

“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! According to his great mercy, he has caused us to be born again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,” ‭‭1 Peter‬ ‭1:3‬ ‭

  • Used by the Spirit, but not indwelled in the post-Pentecost sense, so it's far from clear the 1 Cor 3:16 is relevant.
    – curiousdannii
    Mar 30 at 2:22

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