Why might the KJV and YLT translations of James 2:1 ('Lord' of glory) differ?

Question

This is a question about the KJV and the TR Greek text.

... του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης

[James 2:1 TR - Stephens, Beza, Elzevir, Scrivener - identical]

... our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory

[KJV 1769 'Lord' added]

The margin in the standard KJV text refers the reader to 1 Corinthians 2:8 '... crucified the Lord of glory'.

Robert Young expresses a very different meaning :

... the faith of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ, [YLT James 2:1]

I am interested in the absence of the word 'Lord' in the TR text and the reasons Robert Young might have had for the translation he offers.

I am also interested if there is a genuine and substantial issue regarding manuscript variants (as opposed to a merely speculative or argumentative proposition).

James' mention of 'glory' in the context is quite understandable as he is exhorting his reader to have no consideration for any (superficial) 'glory' of the persons being discussed (and described in example in the next verse). He is exhorting and emphasising faith in 'our Lord Jesus Christ'.

But the word order which he uses must be making a point which, perhaps, translators are finding difficult or ambiguous, unless there is a genuine issue regarding manuscript variants which may be the reason for the KJV referencing another, similar, passage as a means of critical recovery.

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Additional (my own further comment below) :

The TR text reads την πιστιν του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης which, literally, reads the faith of the Lord of us Jesus Christ the glory. 'The faith' is accusative to the verb 'hold'. The rest is genitive to the noun 'faith'. There is, perhaps, an ambiguity in that one could separate 'glory' and make it genitive to the personal nouns 'Jesus Christ'. Otherwise, 'Jesus Christ the glory' becomes a title in the same way that John calls the Lord 'Jesus Christ Righteous', 1 John 2:1.

Answer 1

I hope I understand this question so be kind if I have misunderstood.

First, As best I can tell, the NA28, TR and Byzantine Greek texts are all the same at James 2:1. YLT is predictably good but, like all versions including the KJV and NASB and other, they have had to interpret the text to translate it. Here is my overly literal translation:

Brothers of me, not with partiality hold the faith of the Lord us of Jesus of Christ of glory.

In better, more idiomatic English, this might either be rendered as:

• My brothers, do not show partiality/favoritism as you hold to the faith in our glorious Lord Jesus Christ

or,

• My brothers, do not show partiality/favoritism as you hold to the faith in our Lord Jesus Christ of glory

Note that the phrase, Κύριον τῆς δόξης = "the Lord of Glory" only occurs in 1 Cor 2:8 (and NOT in James 2:1) and the KJV translators have used this precedent to add the extra phrase, "the Lord of glory" to their interpretive version of James 2:1.

I believe this is unwarranted, albeit implied in James 2:1, as in 1 Cor 2:1, "Lord" in NOT genitive but accusative and in James 2:1 it is genitive.

Therefore, of the two version listed above, I prefer the second as slightly more literal, but both would be acceptable as the the various versions show.