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...who testified to the word (λόγον logon) of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, everything that he saw. NASB

He wore a robe dipped in blood, and his title was the Word of God. Rev 19:13

Jesus is titled the Word of God, but this is not an exclusive issue. God is providing the revelation in 1:1 to Jesus (the logos)

The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John

Why is John distinguishing God's word (logos) from Jesus who IS God's word/logos become flesh?

It would seem from Rev 1:2 that God's word/logos is not an exclusive term that applies only to Jesus, the 'logos made flesh'.

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  • It doesn’t appear that you are reading R1:2 in context but equating “the word of God” to the title name “the Word of God”. The angel sent to John bears witness to the word of God (the things the angel heard God reveal to Jesus) and the angel bears witness to the testimony of Jesus (the things the angel heard from Jesus himself).
    – Nihil Sine Deo
    Mar 7, 2021 at 13:08
  • A person may be denoted by their personal name or else by one of their titles, according to context. .A person, extant from the beginning, has been revealed, according to function. Later, that person is revealed by manifestation (incarnation). Thereafter he may be referred to, either by his function or by his revealed manifestation : as both are, now, known. I think the purpose of this question is unclear and requires more detail.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 7, 2021 at 17:02
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    @NigelJ did that 'person' revealed' by manifestation die - or just the manifestation?
    – Steve
    Mar 7, 2021 at 23:25
  • @user48152 The human body (deceased) was laid in the tomb. The human soul descended into hades (thou shalt not leave my soul in hades). The Son is ever in the bosom of the Father. Then, thou shalt not suffer thy holy one to see corruption . . . . . so, resurrection from the dead.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 7, 2021 at 23:30
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    Re the VTC, I think this is a legitimate question. I'd say keep it open; I'd like to see how various viewpoints interpret these passages.
    – Hold To The Rod
    Mar 7, 2021 at 23:48

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Word of God (made flesh). Is a poor translation. Yet another attempt to promote the pagan ideology of the trinity.

Logos (G3056) Greek for an idea, word or speech. The Hebrew equivalent is dabar (H1697) also translates to word, matter, promise or thing. Please note a person IS NOT A THING! In 1,439 translations of dabar it is NEVER used to represent a person. A more appropriate translation would be God's spoken promise (or plan of salvation) was realized (or fulfilled) with the birth of The Lamb.

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  • Welcome to Bible Hermeneutics SE and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others.
    – agarza
    Apr 13, 2021 at 2:24
  • Accurate. Could use more sources though.
    – carsonfel
    Apr 19, 2021 at 22:58
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Why is John distinguishing God's word (logos) from Jesus who IS God's word/logos become flesh?

Different contexts require different wordings. E.g, Jesus is referred to as "Lamb" in Revelation 5:6

Then I saw a Lamb, looking as if it had been slain, standing at the center of the throne, encircled by the four living creatures and the elders. The Lamb had seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven spirits of God sent out into all the earth.

The Greek λόγος has a very wide range of meanings.

Thayer's Greek Lexicon broadly divides the 3 categories of meanings:

I. As respects speech
II. Its use as respects the mind
III. In several passages in the writings of John ὁ λόγος denotes the essential Word of God, i. e. the personal (hypostatic) wisdom and power in union with God, his minister in the creation and government of the universe, the cause of all the world's life both physical and ethical, which for the procurement of man's salvation put on human nature in the person of Jesus the Messiah and shone forth conspicuously from his words and deeds

Thayer lists about a dozen different nuances in the 1st category and six in the 2nd.

OP:

It would seem that God's word/logos is not an exclusive term that applies only to Jesus.

True. In fact, most of the time it does not refer to Jesus' person. Only John uses it that way in Thayer's 3rd category.

Are there different forms or expressions of logos - only one of which is Jesus who is the fleshly human expression of God's word?

No, according to Thayer's Greek Lexicon.

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