Sorry for asking so broadly (no prior homework done on semiotics, say). I'm completely new to Biblical Hermeneutics!
Specifically, will accomplishment of the Law mean the Law starts to disappear letter by letter?
17 Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.
18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.
Do let me know if there's any study I need to do to be able to ask this question with more specificity. Thanks!