Did Jesus pray not to die on the cross in Matthew 26:39?
No, but he did pray that he might not go to the cross at all!
let this cup of suffering be taken away from me v39
Jesus had his own will - which could differ from the Father's. Jesus clearly had in mind other ways of doing things, but he always submitted to the Father.
This is critical in understanding that Jesus depended on the Father for everything he needed to complete the mission perfectly - even at great cost to himself - we can barely imagine the pain, the extended suffering and all accomplished in great humility, peace and love - and trusting obedience.
John 5:30 I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.
John 6:38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of Him who sent me.
A second time He went away and prayed, “My Father, if this cup cannot pass unless I drink it, may Your will be done.” Matt 26:42
“Abba, Father,” He said, “all things are possible for You. Take this cup from Me. Yet not what I will, but what You will.” Mark 14:36
We have all the passages that show how Jesus could do nothing or speak nothing except what the Father provided. John 14:24, 49 - even Rev 1:1 where God is giving Jesus the revelation for John.
But, let us not think for a moment that Jesus was separated from his Father. Sin separates from God - Jesus never sinned. He WAS the sin offering only.
God...by sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh to be a sin offering Rom 8:3
Yet it was the LORD’s will to crush Him and to cause Him to suffer; and when His soul is made a guilt offering, He will see His offspring, He will prolong His days, and the good pleasure of the LORD will prosper in His hand. Is 53:10
The erroneous idea that Jesus became sin is of poor understanding.
He made the One not having known sin to be sin for us, so that in Him we might become the righteousness of God. 2 Cor 5:21
The Gr. 'hamartia' can be translated as ‘sin’ OR ‘sin offering’. So the former is not forced on the text^.
1 John 3:5 And you know that he appeared, so that he might take away sins; and in him there is no sin.
It seems to be this matter of Jesus becoming sin for this moment that God is to have abandoned him. This is the final moment of glory for the Father and His son in the accomplishment of the whole plan laid down from the foundation of the world!
What about the cup?
27And having taken a cup, and having given thanks, he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you. 28For this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. Matt 26:27-8
Jesus was being given the cup of the new covenant to 'drink'. He had just been sharing the cup with the disciples - the drink represented his blood. But he was about to share in the cup of the entire world. It was his life-blood being poured out and he would need to be fully committed to this sacrifice to the bitter end. The cup the Father had given to him could only be taken away by the Father. But Jesus, doing the Father's will, drank it for everyone else - there was no one to share this cup with!
Jesus not separated from God.
Jesus crying out, 'My God, why have you abandoned me?' is a timely quote from the Psalms. Jesus knew that the Jews and followers knew the Psalms very well.
Ps 22 begins with '...why have you forsaken me?', and closes with, "It is finished!"
I wont draw this out - you can read it for yourself, but he uses words that are largely lost in our translations. Jesus was drawing their attention to all these prophetic details that applied to him. Beginning with the first verse and also quoting the last - they knew what was in the middle and were being reminded of all the details that applied directly to him - to the prophecies that were being fulfilled right then and in the lead-up to this time.
v31 They will come and declare His righteousness To a people yet to be born—that He has done it [and that it is finished]. AMP
No the Father never left Jesus at this most triumphant point in all creation - Jesus is about to redeem it all and there is no reason for the Father to turn away from him.
Yes Jesus bore the sin of all creation - but he did not become sin. The perfect one-time offering for sin only. He was never separated from or abandoned by his God.
Jesus despising the shame... what does that mean? (Paul) is talking about the cross.
disregarding its shame NLT, Jesus is not despising the cross, but the shame that any other person would connect with such a choice - to give their innocent life in such incredible cruelty and pain, for others. To suffer the ignominy and disgrace and humiliation of being the 'King', even the son of God, yet choosing not to stop the impending doom.
The 'shame' that would accompany any other person, is what Jesus despised. He wasn't going to fall for self-pity or get angry or violent, he wasn't going to let pride get the better of him, which is what shame may drive one to. Pride was the devil's weapon of choice in the first round of temptation... it was still there at the end and Jesus held the line - doing God's will - not his own.
Not being diminished by such a base self-centred emotion - not succumbing to it at all. This is part of his willingness to not strive for his rightful place beside God as His son, but to be the human sacrifice for his brothers - defeating sin and death and evil in one go! AND THEN - God would raise him and exalt him to the highest place - the very throne of his Father and God!!!
Jesus did not become sin. This is perhaps a possible translation, but it has no purpose, nor any correlation with other scripture.
^A Concise Greek-English Dictionary of the NT by Barclay Neman - hamartia means, “sin” and “sin offering,” and the Zondervan Pictorial Ency lists both “sin” and “sin offering”. English Bibles that have “sin offering” or an equivalent in 2 Corinthians 5:21 include the CJB, NLT, The NT by Charles Williams, and The Holy Bible: New European Version. Hamartia is from the Hebrew word for “sin offering” in the Septuagint (Exod. 29:14, 36; 30:10; Lev. 4:3, 8, 21, 24, 25) chattath in the Hebrew Bible, means either “sin” or “sin offering etc