I've made an argument from the pronouns in 1 Corinthians 15:42 that the thing that's sown in corruption (i.e., our body) is the same thing that's later raised in incorruption because both are called "it." The verse reads, "So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption" (emphasis mine). One thing I wanted to clarify: "It is sown" translates σπειρεται, while "it is raised" translates εγειρεται. While these two Greek words are not pronouns, do they imply the two "it's" that the KJV has in this verse, perhaps based on their form or something? Thanks!

2 Answers 2


Read it in the larger context of 1 Corinthians 15:40–44:

There are also celestial bodies and terrestrial bodies; but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another. There is one glory of the sun, another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars; for one star differs from another star in glory. So also is the resurrection of the dead. The body is sown in corruption, it is raised in incorruption. It is sown in dishonor, it is raised in glory. It is sown in weakness, it is raised in power. It is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

It's rather obvious that what is buried is also what is resurrected, the same person, but in a different body.

If you look at a Biblical Greek tool, such as Blue Letter Bible, it shows that both verbs are "V-PPI-3S" (present passive indicative, 3rd person singular). There's no reason to think they don't share the same subject.

  • Thats right. Relatively obvious. Word analysis needs to be driven by context.
    – Dave
    Feb 14, 2021 at 19:20
  • Thanks for the reply! What would you say is the thing that's sown as a natural body and then raised as a spiritual body? I suppose it isn't the person. We have bodies rather than are bodies. Would the implied antecedent be our body? If so, is the meaning that our body, right now, is natural and corruptible but will one day be transformed to be spiritual and incorruptible?
    – The Editor
    Feb 15, 2021 at 16:33

Young's Literal Translation 1 Corinthians 15:42

So also is the rising again of the dead:
it is sown in corruption,
it is raised in incorruption;

The last two lines in Greek parallellism:

σπείρεται   φθορᾷ 
ἐγείρεται   ἀφθαρσίᾳ 

Both verbs, sown and raised, are in present indicative passive, 3rd Person Singular.

In 1 Corinthians 15:42, is what's sown in corruption the same thing that's raised in incorruption per implied pronouns?

Yes, the parallelism and the verb forms strongly agree that both verbs refer to the same 3rd person singular referent.

  • Thank you for the reply! What about verse 37, which says, "And that which thou sowest, thou sowest not that body that shall be... "? Does this suggest that the thing that's sown is not the thing that's raised?
    – The Editor
    Feb 15, 2021 at 16:36
  • Good point. I think so. That's why I didn't use the word "body" in my answer.
    – user35953
    Feb 15, 2021 at 16:48
  • Then again, 15:44 says, "It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. ..." Could this suggest that the body is what's sown, sown as a natural body, but then later, it--the same body--is raised, now transformed as a spiritual body? Philippians 3:21 might also be relevant to the discussion.
    – The Editor
    Feb 16, 2021 at 18:15
  • All these are possible as long as you sort out the metaphors from the literals.
    – user35953
    Feb 16, 2021 at 18:41

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