Did the Greek Septuagint ignore the Hebrew name change of Mikayehu מִיכָֽיְהוּ to Mikah מִיכָ֔ה in Judges 17:4-5?
- When we read "Judges" / שֹֽׁפְטִ֑ים Shoftim 17:4-5 in the Tanakh, we notice God's Name and influence leaves Mikayehu מִיכָֽיְהוּ once he decides to bring idols into his house. - Mikayehu מִיכָֽיְהוּ changes to become simply Mikah.
Judges / שֹֽׁפְטִ֑ים Shoftim 17:4-5 [MT]
 "And he restored the money to his mother. And his mother took two hundred pieces of silver, and gave them to the founder, and he made thereof a graven image and a molten one, and it was in the house of **Mikayehu**." ( וַיָּ֥שֶׁב אֶת־הַכֶּ֖סֶף לְאִמּ֑וֹ וַתִּקַּ֣ח אִמּוֹ֩ מָאתַ֨יִם כֶּ֜סֶף וַתִּתְּנֵ֣הוּ לַצּוֹרֵ֗ף וַֽיַּעֲשֵֹ֙הוּ֙ פֶּ֣סֶל וּמַסֵּכָ֔ה וַיְהִ֖י בְּבֵ֥ית מִיכָֽיְהוּ )
 "Now the man **Mikah** had a house of idolatry. And he made an ephod and teraphim, and initiated one of his sons, who became his priest." ( וְהָאִ֣ישׁ מִיכָ֔ה ל֖וֹ בֵּ֣ית אֱלֹהִ֑ים וַיַּ֚עַשׂ אֵפוֹד֙ וּתְרָפִ֔ים וַיְמַלֵּ֗א אֶת־יַ֚ד אַחַד֙ מִבָּנָ֔יו וַיְהִי־ל֖וֹ לְכֹהֵֽן )
Yet in Judges 17:1-5 of the Greek Septuagint [https://www.blueletterbible.org/lxx/jdg/17/1/s_228001 ] , we only see the name " Μιχα " : representing both Mikayehu מִיכָֽיְהוּ and the idolatrous Mikah מִיכָ֔ה.
Why did the Greek Septuagint choose to ignore the author's intentional name change? - Is Greek not capable of transliterating the title: Mikayehu מִיכָֽיְהוּ ?