Mark 14:36 "ἀββᾶ ὁ πατήρ". Galatians 4:6 "ἀββᾶ ὁ πατήρ". Romans 8:15 "ἀββᾶ, ὁ πατήρ".

In Smith Van Dyk Arabic translation it is "يا أبا الآب".

Literal translation of "يا أبا الآب" is: "father of the father"!

So what is the accurate translation of the Greek phrase.

  • Does this answer your question? Translation of "abba" (Αββα, אבא) Jan 24 '21 at 0:07
  • @Derübermensch I read the post , it is good, but I am asking about the whole phrase ἀββᾶ, ὁ πατήρ what is the accurate translation. Thank you 🌹.
    – salah
    Jan 24 '21 at 0:50

אַבָּא (ἀββᾶ, abba) is Aramaic and is in the emphatic state, not construct.

enter image description here Alger F. Johns, A SHORT GRAMMAR OF BIBLICAL ARAMAIC, Andrews University Monographs, Vol. 1, p. 9. http://www.learnassyrian.com/assyrianlibrary/assyrianbooks/Language/05%20A%20Short%20Grammar%20of%20Biblical%20Aramaic.pdf
Note: BA = Biblicsl Aramaic; BH = Biblical Hebrew

Thus, ἀββᾶ translates as "the Father." The construct state would translate "father of."
ὁ πατήρ is a Greek translation of ἀββᾶ. This is difficult to translate into Arabic. It might help to use an Aramaic script for ἀββᾶ.


As correctly noted by the OP, the word ἀββᾶ occurs just three times in the NT and always in the phrase ἀββᾶ ὁ πατήρ, ie, Mark 14:36, Rom 8:15, Gal 4:6.

The word "abba" is a Chaldee/Aramaic word whose definition is given from Thayer in the Appendix below - the vocative form of "Father". BDAG gives very similar information.

The other two words are ὁ πατήρ which is literally, "The Father", referring to God the Father. Thus, the full phrase, ἀββᾶ ὁ πατήρ means "Father (Aramaic) The father (Greek)". It appears that Aramaic speaking people addressed their prayers to "Abba" while the Greek speaking people addressed their prayers to "The Father".

The writers of the NT simply covered both bases in saying ἀββᾶ ὁ πατήρ.

APPENDIX Thayer meaning for ἀββᾶ

Ἀββᾶ (WH (βά), Hebrew אָב father, in the Chaldean emphatic state, אַבָּא i. e. ὁ πατήρ, a customary title of God in prayer. Whenever it occurs in the N. T. (Mark 14:36; Romans 8:15; Galatians 4:6) it has the Greek interpretation subjoined to it; this is apparently to be explained by the fact that the Chaldee אַבָּא, through frequent use in prayer, gradually acquired the nature of a most sacred proper name, to which the Greek-speaking Jews added the appellative from their own tongue.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.