The King James Version translation of Luke 24:46 is similar to the 1899 Douay-Rheims translation.
(King James Version) And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
(1899 Douay-Rheims) And he said to them: Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise again from the dead, the third day:
With both in that verse Jesus seems to be saying two different statements which are joined by an "and" conjunction, and also explicitly indicating that it was a duty of Christ to suffer rather than just what would happen.
However with the NASB and Westminster interpretations
(NASB) and He said to them, “So it is written, that the Christ would suffer and rise from the dead on the third day,
(Westminster) And he said to them, 'Thus it is written: that the Christ would suffer, and should rise again from the dead on the third day,
What Jesus says seems to be a single statement about what was written, and there seems to be no explicit indication that it was Christ's duty to suffer.
I looked on Bible Hub ( https://biblehub.com/text/luke/24-46.htm ) and could not see the "and" conjunction used by the King James Version and 1899 Douay-Rheims to seemingly divide what was said in that verse into two statements as mentioned, nor did I notice that there was any reference to duty of any kind. But I don't understand Greek and am just going by my impressions of the page, also I am not sure whether there is an issue of the different interpretations using different Greek sources.
Since there seem to be many knowledgeable people on this forum, I was hoping that some might give an answer as to whether there is a Greek source that indicates that it would be a duty of the Christ to suffer, and whether it indicates or is ambiguous about "Thus it is written" and "thus it behoved Christ to suffer..." being two different statements joined by a conjunction?
Thanks in advance for any response.