Hi in the following verse:
Mark 1:15 (UBS5): Πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς καὶ ἤγγικεν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ· μετανοεῖτε καὶ πιστεύετε ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ.
... has been fulfilled the time and has drawn near the kingdom of God
[Literal interlinear from EGNT]
What is the purpose of the author in using the perfect passive for Πεπλήρωται and perfect active for ἤγγικεν? For instance, the perfect passive could have been used for both or the perfect active.
Thanks in advance!