Hi in the following verse:

Mark 1:15 (UBS5): Πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς καὶ ἤγγικεν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ· μετανοεῖτε καὶ πιστεύετε ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ.

... has been fulfilled the time and has drawn near the kingdom of God

[Literal interlinear from EGNT]

What is the purpose of the author in using the perfect passive for Πεπλήρωται and perfect active for ἤγγικεν? For instance, the perfect passive could have been used for both or the perfect active.

Thanks in advance!

  • 2
    The two verbs have different subjects.
    – Dottard
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 10:57
  • 1
    I have edited only to make it clear to all users what is being asked. (Up-voted +1.)
    – Nigel J
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 16:07
  • Thanks Nigel J appreciated.
    – user7289
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 18:02

1 Answer 1


English Standard Version

and saying, “The time is fulfilled

is fulfilled,
Πεπλήρωται (Peplērōtai)
Verb - Perfect Indicative Middle or Passive - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's Greek 4137: From pleres; to make replete, i.e. to cram, level up, or to furnish, satisfy, execute, finish, verify, etc.

Time is not the actor; God is.

New Living Translation

“The time promised by God has come at last!”

New Living Translation

“The Kingdom of God is near!

is near
ἤγγικεν (ēngiken)
Verb - Perfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular Strong's Greek 1448: Trans: I bring near; intrans: I come near, approach. From eggus; to make near, i.e. approach.

Kingdom of God is the actor. It has come near. It makes no sense to make it passive: the Kingdom of God has been come near.

  • Thanks Tony very helpful and clear and inline with how I understood subject/object in respect to passive/active. Ι guess I was curious as to why the author (or Jesus) chose not to word this differently where the actor (subject) is God an the the verb relating to fulfilment is active and wondered if there was anything more behind it e.g. KoG - it could also be “the kingdom of God has been brought near” (i.e. God is the actor and the coming near is passive).
    – user7289
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 18:01
  • Glad I could help. Partly, it is due to the idiomatic usage of the Greek word for fulfilled which is almost always used as passive. These are more pragmatic issues than syntax. Ultimately, it was just Mark's writing style.
    – user35953
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 18:08
  • Okay great thats the exact thing I wanted to understand - so its idiomatic/writing style.
    – user7289
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 18:18
  • God bless your reading :)
    – user35953
    Commented Jan 6, 2021 at 18:20

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.