Quick question - I am learning Greek and trying to read the NT in the same. Why is the perfect tense used when describing Jesus’ (Rev 1) and John the Baptist’s clothes (Mark 1)?
Specifically I am specifically using the UBS5 and looking the verb ἐνδύω (I clothe) in the following 2 verses:
"καὶ ἦν ὁ Ἰωάννης ἐνδεδυμένος τρίχας καμήλου καὶ ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὐτοῦ" Mark 1:6
"καὶ ἐν μέσῳ τῶν λυχνιῶν ὅμοιον υἱὸν ἀνθρώπου ἐνδεδυμένον ποδήρη καὶ περιεζωσμένον πρὸς τοῖς μαστοῖς ζώνην χρυσᾶν" Rev 1:13
I am wonderednig why the perfect tense ("was clothed") has been used vs. other options such as the aortist and present.
Thanks in advance.