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Mark 5:6 When the man saw Jesus from a distance, he ran and fell on his knees before Him. 7And he shouted in a loud voice, “What do You want with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? I beg You before God not to torture me!” 8 For Jesus had already declared, “Come out of this man, you unclean spirit!”
Which happened first?
Why didn't the man run away when he saw Jesus?
The answer to this question hinges on the tense of the verb, ἔλεγεν, which in this case, is slightly tricky as the root word, depending on which grammar is consulted, is either, ἔπω, or, λέγω. [I personally prefer the latter.] In either case, the tense is Imperfect Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular.
Thus we should translate, "he was already saying".
This is the translation of ESV, BLB, NASB, etc. The sense appears to be that the demoniac's actions had interrupted what Jesus was saying. I note that several people reach the same conclusion:
Ellicott:
(8) For he said unto him.—The Greek verb is in the imperfect tense, he was saying, as though the demoniac had interrupted our Lord even while the words were in the act of being uttered.
Expositor's Greek
Mark 5:8. ἔλεγεν γὰρ, for He was about to say: not yet said, but evident from Christ’s manner and look that it was on His tongue; the conative imperfect (Weiss).
Pulpit Commentary
Verses 8, 9. - For he said unto him, Come forth, thou unclean spirit, out of the man; literally, for he was saying (ἔλεγε). The unclean spirit endeavored to arrest, before it was spoken, that word of power which he knew he must obey.
The poor demoniac is thus presented as confused and betweixt the irresistible power and command of Jesus vs the control of demons within. [A very fitting picture of all sinners!]
