In Isaiah 7:14-16

14 Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and she will name Him Immanuel. 15 He will eat curds and honey at the time He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. 16 For before the boy knows enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be abandoned.

and in Isaiah 9:6

For a Child will be born to us, a Son will be given to us; And the government will rest on His shoulders; And His name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.

Are these passages speaking of the same child?

  • 2
    Excellent question for people to ponder. Thank you. Commented Dec 20, 2020 at 20:04
  • Isaiah 7 and 8 are the same context. In Isaiah 8 "and i went into the prophetess".....hmmmm
    – joshuaE
    Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 5:16

1 Answer 1


The short answer is "Yes" and "NO". Let me be more specific.

Isa 7:14 is a prophecy about a child that Isaiah's wife would have as a sign that Assyria would be defeated. It is a local prophecy about a local situation and carries no immediate Messianic overtones.

However, the inspired NT writer, Matthew in ch 1:23 takes this prophecy and re-purposes it to apply to Christ. This could not have been deduced from the original text but by the direction of the Holy Spirit it now has become a Messianic prophecy about Jesus.

Isa 9:6 - by contrast, the prophecy of Isa 9 is a prophecy about the future - a time when the "great light" would appear (V2, 6, 7). This is clearly and always was a Messianic prophecy.


Therefore, originally, the two prophecies of Isa 7:14 & 9:6 were discussing two different children but because the or the NT re-purposing of one of them, they now both point to the same child - the Messiah born in Bethlehem.

  • No one in the New Testament applied Isaiah 9:6 to Jesus. The Septuagint translation of Isaiah 9:6 used by Jesus and the Apostles does not support the Roman Catholic corruption of Isaiah 9:6. Commented Dec 21, 2020 at 0:12
  • @JesusSaves - are you suggesting the BHS is wrong? What is the true text and how do you know? Further, again, do not put words in my mouth - I DID NOT SAY that anyone in the NT applied Isa 9:6 to Jesus!!
    – Dottard
    Commented Dec 21, 2020 at 2:02
  • I did not say you claimed that the NT applied Isaiah 9:6 to Jesus. I was pointed out a material fact. Commented Dec 21, 2020 at 2:20
  • @Dottard - may I ask why you believe the prophesied child, Immanuel, is Isaiah's son? Contextually (also in view of Isaiah 8:8), does it not make more sense that the virgin/maid was in the king's household and she conceived the king's son, and named him Immanuel? This makes the symbol more powerful in Matthew's explanation. Immanuel was indeed a son of David, heir to the throne, whose appearance signaled inevitable judgment on Judah's enemies but also on Judah.
    – ABN22
    Commented Apr 11 at 14:44
  • @ABN22 - I believe that Immanuel was a prophecy of the son in Isaiah's time precisely because that is what the prophecy states in Isa 7 - see V10-16.
    – Dottard
    Commented Apr 11 at 20:42

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.