Absolutely and unequivocally yes. At Genesis 16:13 Hagar says, "Then she called the name of the Lord who spoke to her, "Thou are a God who sees;" for she said, "Have I even remained alive here after seeing Him?"
So on what basis did Hagar come to that conclusion? Going back to verse 7, "Now the angel of the Lord found her by a spring of water in the wilderness, by the spring on the way to Shur," At verse 9, the angel of the Lord said to her, I WILL greatly multiply your descendants so that they shall be too many to count." (I'm not going to quote every verse but highlight the important ones).
Now look at Genesis 17:1-2. Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless, vs2, And I will establish My covenant between Me and you, And I will multiply you exceedingly."
The question I have is "Rhetorical." I maintain that the same being who multiplied Hagar's descendants is the same being who multiplied Abram's descendants. It's already been pointed out that God the Father cannot be seen even by Jesus Christ Himself. John 5:37, John 6:46 and by others at John 1:18 and 1 Timothy6:16. Besides, Jesus also said at John 4:24, "God is spirit (or a spiritual being if you will) and those who worship Him must worship Him in spirit and truth."
Now, getting back to Genesis 17:1-2 some may say and do say that God appeared to Abram in a dream or even a vision. God did appear to Abram in a vision at Genesis 15:1. Even in a vision you are seeing, that's why it's called a "vision." But at Genesis 17:1-2 it was not a vision which is verified at Genesis 17:22. "And when He/God finished talking with him, God went up from Abraham."
I maintain the angel of the Lord is the pre-incarnate Jesus Christ. God the Father has no separate manifestation from the Son. The Son is the only manifestation and revelation of the Father. What is known of the Father is revealed through the Son. To see the Son is to see the essence of the Father. (John 1:18; 10;30; 12:45; Colossians 1:15; Hebrews 1:3).
Now turning to Genesis 18:1, "Now the Lord appeared to him/Abraham by the oaks of Mamre, while he was sitting at the tent door in the heat of the day." In this chapter it was the angel of the Lord who appeared to Abraham with two actual angels.
In the rest of the chapter Abraham and the Lord discuss Sodom and Gomorrah. The last verse says, "And as soon as He/God finished speaking to Abraham the Lord departed; and Abraham returned to his place. Now look at Genesis 19:1, "Now the TWO ANGELS came to Sodom in the evening etc. Conclusion, the angel of the Lord is not an actual angel but the other two persons were actual angels.
The Hebrew word for angel is "malik" and it simply means messenger. It should be noted that in all the appearances of the angel of the Lord he not only acts as a messenger but he also intercedes for the nation of Israel. And another side note worth mentioning is the fact that the angel of the Lord never appears in the New Testament as the angel of the Lord, although he is mentioned by Stephen at Acts 7.
Some very interesting things regarding the angel of the Lord at Genesis 22. Verse 1, "Now it came about after these things, that GOD tested Abrahm." He tested him by asking him to sacrifice his son Isaac. Verse 10, "And Abraham stretched out his hand, and took the knife to slay his son."
Verse 11, "But the angel of the Lord called to him from heaven, and said, "Abraham, Abraham!" And he said, "Here I am." Vs12, And he said, "Do not stretch out your hand against the lad, and do nothing to him; for now I know that you fear God, since you have not withheld you son, your only son from Me." (As a side note Isaac was not Abraham's only son).
Vs14, "And Abraham called the name of that place the Lord will provide." Jumping to vs15, "Then the angel of the Lord called to Abraham a second time from heaven, vs16, and said, "BY MYSELF I have sworn, declares the Lord, because you have done this thing, and have not withheld you son, your only son,
vs17, indeed I will greatly bless you, and I will greatly multiply your seed as the stars of the heavens, and as the sand which is on the seashore; and your seed shall possess the gate of their enemies." Vs18, "And in your seed all the nations shall be blessed, because YOU HAVE OBEYED MY VOICE."
It should be noted that the Jews have what is know as the "Shaliach" principle. That is that an agent/emissary was often appointed to represent a principal. In this case it is said the angel of the Lord is simply representing God, who is the principal. He is speaking the words for God just like a prophet speaks words for God.
A couple of things to note is that a "Shaliach" is limited on what he can do on behalf of a principal. More importantly and this point puts the nail in the coffin so to speak as to why the "Shaliach" principle does not apply by reading Hebrews 6:13,14.
"For when God made the promise to Abraham, since He could not swear by no one greater, HE SWORE BY HIMSELF, Vs14, saying, I will surely bless you, and I will surely multiply you."
An an actual angel cannot swear an oath on behalf of God because angels are not greater than God. Although, angels can swear oaths on their own at Revelation 10:5-6. This not only means that the angel of the Lord is not an actual angel, but it proves (at least to me according to the evidence) that the angel of the Lord has to be the pre-incarnate Jesus Christ. And at Hebrews 6:16 regarding oaths, men swear by God who is greater than they are. They do so in order to convince other men that they are truthful and intend to abide by their promise.