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Isaiah 56:6 (NET):

As for foreigners who become followers of the Lord and serve him, who love the name of the Lord and want to be his servants — all who observe the Sabbath and do not defile it, and who are faithful to my covenant —

So given that in the New Testament Paul writes that following the sabbath is a part of the shadow and the substance is found in Christ. Do we follow what Paul says about the Sabbath or do we follow Isaiah? How do we reconcile these two?

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Paul writes that following the sabbath is a part of the shadow and the substance is found in Christ.

The question completely misrepresents what Paul was saying.

It is holy days, sabbaths, and new moons that are referred to as "a shadow". These festivals provide prophetic symbolism (foreshadowing) of God's plan ("things to come").

"substance" should be translated as "body", as it is in over 100 other instances in scripture, in this case as "the body of Christ". The passage is saying to let no man judge you, to accept only the judgement of the body of Christ (the Church).

For more details, see exegesis - Keeping the Sabbath and Colossians 2:16 - Christianity Stack Exchange

Do we follow what Paul says about the Sabbath or do we follow Isaiah? How do we reconcile these two?

Both. They are in agreement and there is nothing to reconcile.

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Your question relates to two different covenants. Isaiah, under being ‘under’ the old covenant, would be following the principles outlined in Leviticus and Exodus.

EXODUS 12:49 The same law shall apply to the native as to the stranger who sojourns among you.”

But, we are not ‘under’ that old covenant. That was specifically for the children of Israel, and one of the reasons for that covenant was to keep them separate from other nations.

HEBREWS 8:7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.

8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:

So,the ‘simplistic’ answer to your question is .... follow Paul.

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  • Where does "God has found fault with it and created a better covenant, enacted on better promises." come from? It's not in any version of the Bible that I have. – Ray Butterworth Dec 18 '20 at 23:44
  • @Ray Butterworth (Amended to NKJ). To answer your Q, I rechecked to find the translation used, and it wasn’t referenced. – Dave Dec 19 '20 at 1:38
  • Yes, the old covenant was only for Israel,. But Hebrews 8:8 talks about a new covenant that also is "with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah", so that verse doesn't support your point. ¶ Notice that the "fault" wasn't with the covenant itself [it], but with the Israelites [them]. Read those verses as if "marriage" had been said instead: "For if that first [marriage] had been faultless …. For finding fault with [the wife] he said … I will make a new [marriage] ….". – Ray Butterworth Dec 19 '20 at 3:52
  • @Ray Butterworth I agree with both your points, that the new covenant was for Judah, and, that the fault was with ‘man’ - not the covenant. There is actually no (different) covenant’ for ‘gentiles’. We only have salvation ‘in or through christ’ - that’s the only way we can participate in the ‘new’ covenant. And, Paul outlines how. – Dave Dec 19 '20 at 4:53

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