τεκνια μου ταυτα γραφω υμιν ινα μη αμαρτητε και εαν τις αμαρτη παρακλητον εχομεν προς τον πατερα ιησουν χριστον δικαιον [1 John 2:1 - TR (undisputed)]
My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: [1 John 1:2 KJV.]
John does not condone sinning ('I write to you that ye may not sin') but in this place he says 'if anyone should sin' and gives the remedy for that situation.
The remedy is a Paraklete, which most agree means 'one called alongside' or words close to that effect. And uniquely, in this place, the description or title (one may argue it is either or both) given to the Son of God, risen and ascended, is 'Jesus Christ righteous' (the article in front of 'righteous' not being present in the original).
Thus Jesus Christ righteous is called alongside the penitent sinner.
But the Paraklete (the same person as 'Jesus Christ righteous') is also said, by John, to be προς τον πατερα which some versions express as 'before the Father' or 'with the Father' and some interpret by saying 'who pleads with the Father'.
John's words emphasise not 'pleading' but propitiation, I would notice. Which is a different thing altogether.
So, the scenario suggested by John's words is one drawn along beside the sinner. And, also the Father being spoken of, as either distant, or present.
But I would like to clarify John's words further by refining the meaning of the preposition προς.
προς, here, is followed by an accusative which Daniel B Wallace states occurs almost 700 times in the New Testament scriptures, there being only one with genitive and six with dative.
Of accusative situations, he outlines six usages :
- Purpose : for, for the purpose of
- Spatial : toward
- Temporal : toward, for (duration)
- Result : so that, with the result that
- Opposition : against
- Association : with, in company with (with stative verbs)
My impression, therefore, from John's words, is of the Paraklete being called alongside and, his name, description or title being emphasised as 'righteous', he is, therefore, 'in association with' (Daniel B Wallace's meaning in the context of 'have' being a stative verb) the Father.
Thus, in the drawing near of Jesus Christ Righteous (I am accepting this as a title, hence a capital), since he is 'in association with' the Father, the Father - also - draws near.
And the drawing near of the Father is on the basis not of 'pleading', but of an already accomplished propitiation.
Would this be a correct apprehension of the meaning of John's words ?