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τεκνια μου ταυτα γραφω υμιν ινα μη αμαρτητε και εαν τις αμαρτη παρακλητον εχομεν προς τον πατερα ιησουν χριστον δικαιον [1 John 2:1 - TR (undisputed)]

My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: [1 John 1:2 KJV.]

John does not condone sinning ('I write to you that ye may not sin') but in this place he says 'if anyone should sin' and gives the remedy for that situation.

The remedy is a Paraklete, which most agree means 'one called alongside' or words close to that effect. And uniquely, in this place, the description or title (one may argue it is either or both) given to the Son of God, risen and ascended, is 'Jesus Christ righteous' (the article in front of 'righteous' not being present in the original).

Thus Jesus Christ righteous is called alongside the penitent sinner.

But the Paraklete (the same person as 'Jesus Christ righteous') is also said, by John, to be προς τον πατερα which some versions express as 'before the Father' or 'with the Father' and some interpret by saying 'who pleads with the Father'.

John's words emphasise not 'pleading' but propitiation, I would notice. Which is a different thing altogether.

So, the scenario suggested by John's words is one drawn along beside the sinner. And, also the Father being spoken of, as either distant, or present.

But I would like to clarify John's words further by refining the meaning of the preposition προς.

προς, here, is followed by an accusative which Daniel B Wallace states occurs almost 700 times in the New Testament scriptures, there being only one with genitive and six with dative.

Of accusative situations, he outlines six usages :

    1. Purpose : for, for the purpose of
    1. Spatial : toward
    1. Temporal : toward, for (duration)
    1. Result : so that, with the result that
    1. Opposition : against
    1. Association : with, in company with (with stative verbs)

My impression, therefore, from John's words, is of the Paraklete being called alongside and, his name, description or title being emphasised as 'righteous', he is, therefore, 'in association with' (Daniel B Wallace's meaning in the context of 'have' being a stative verb) the Father.

Thus, in the drawing near of Jesus Christ Righteous (I am accepting this as a title, hence a capital), since he is 'in association with' the Father, the Father - also - draws near.

And the drawing near of the Father is on the basis not of 'pleading', but of an already accomplished propitiation.

Would this be a correct apprehension of the meaning of John's words ?

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First, I would agree with the OP's analysis of the text of 1 John 2:1. However, I would not divorce it from that which comes before:

1 John 1:8-2:2

If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say we have not sinned, we make Him out to be a liar, and His word is not in us.

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you will not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate before the Father—Jesus Christ, the Righteous One. He Himself is the atoning sacrifice [= propitiation] for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

PROS

"pros" is a significant preposition with theological overtones for John. He uses it in three famous passages all saying the same thing or something very similar about the Father and the Son:

John 1:1, 2 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with [= pros] God, and the Word was God. He was with [= pros] God in the beginning.

1 John 1:1, 2 - That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our own eyes, which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—this is the Word of life. And this is the life that was revealed; we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with [= pros] the Father and was revealed to us.

1 John 2:1 - My dear children, I write this to you so that you will not sin. But if anybody does sin, we have an advocate with [= pros] the Father--Jesus Christ, the Righteous One.

Notice that when John talks about "us" being with the Father and Son, he uses a different preposition, "meta".

1 John 1:3 - We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with [= meta] us. And our fellowship is with [= meta] the Father and with [= meta] his Son, Jesus Christ.

If no verb of motion is used or implied, then "pros' suggests "by, at, near" (BDAG pros, 3g). In any case, whatever is argued for any one of the above "pros" instances would presumably apply to all the rest.

According to Philip W Comfort ("Complete Guide to Bible Versions" Chap 8), "pros" in this context is actually an abbreviation of "prosopon pros prosopon" = "face to face", which makes perfect sense in all these usages of "pros" in the writings of John when it is used of the relationship of the Son/Logos and the Father.

Thus, "pros" denotes a close personal relationship of the Father and the Son. It is because of this close personal relationship, AND that Jesus is called "our brother" (Heb 2:11-13, Ps 22:22, Isa 8:17, 18, Matt 12:48, 49, John 20:17, Rom 8:29) that enables us to have an "advocate" (parakletos) with the Father.

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    I find the mentions of pros in John 1:1,2 and I John 1:1,2 and the mentions of meta in 1 John 1:3 (your reference of 2:3 is incorrect) are both pertinent and helpful. I cannot accept the notion that John would "abbreviate" so that I discount. And I note that 'Logos' is never mentioned in the context of 'Father' except in the Johannine comma which should not be in the canon of scripture. Up-voted +1, but with caution.
    – Nigel J
    Dec 15 '20 at 11:13
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My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with (προς) the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.
(1 John 2:1 ESV)

Lexicon
προς is a preposition which expresses direction:

προς preposition expressing direction 'on the side of', 'in the direction of': with genitive 'from', dative 'at', or accusative (the most frequent usage in our literature) 'to' (s. the literature s.v. ἀνά. beg.) (Hom.+)
❸ with acc. (pseudegigr. and apolog. throughout) marker of movement or orientation toward someone/something1

In particular, BDAG states the use in 1 John 2:1 is by, at, near.2 Thus the believer has a παράκλητον, Jesus Christ the righteous, who is by, at, or near the Father. For example, seated at the right hand of the throne of Majesty in heaven (cf. Hebrews 12:2). The sense of marking movement could be added by picturing Jesus turning toward the Father to advocate on behalf of the believer.

Being by, at, or near, that is προς, must also take into account John's decision not to use a word like συμπάρειμι to describe the relationship:

When he prepared the sky, I was present with him, and when he marked out his own throne on the winds. (LXX-Proverbs 8:27)
ἡνίκα ἡτοίμαζεν τὸν οὐρανόν συμπαρήμην αὐτῷ καὶ ὅτε ἀφώριζεν τὸν ἑαυτοῦ θρόνον ἐπ᾽ ἀνέμων

The relationship is more than simply being present with, or in the presence of, the Father.

προς in John
As Dottard notes in their answer, a significant aspect of choosing προς to describe the present day relationship with the Father is that it alludes to the beginning of the Fourth Gospel:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (προς) God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with (προς) God. (John 1:1-2)

No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known. (John 1:18)

The Prologue begins using προς to describe the initial condition of the Word and then traces changes until the ending condition with the Father:

Word προς God --> Word became flesh --> μονογενὴς ὢν Father
  ἦν πρὸς             ἐγένετο                     ὢν                        

The μονογενὴς, Jesus Christ, is ὢν in the bosom of the Father; the one being at the side (or in the bosom) of the Father is the believer's advocate (παράκλητος) who is προς the Father.

Conclusion
The verbs used with προς paint a picture with change. What was (ἦν, imperfect indicative) προς God; became (ἐγένετο, aorist indicative) flesh; is being (ὢν, present participle) προς the Father. One way to understand a sense of movement is over time. He is sent and returns yet He is with/προς the Father. A worldly example would be an object thrown into the air which is "with" the gravitational pull of the earth regardless of its motion. In a similar sense, the Son can be said to be with/προς the Father regardless of sent, in the flesh, returning, seated, or standing.

If the focus is narrowed to just we have an advocate with (προς) the Father, then it must still be consistent with the Gospel. That is, Jesus Christ is the the μονογενὴς who is the one being in the bosom of the Father from where He ἐξηγήσατο. There is a dual meaning to this action:

No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (John 1:18 KJV)

No one has ever seen God; the only God, THE ONE WHO IS, has himself led out into the bosom of the Father.3

Jesus Christ is not only the way to the Father; He leads believers to the Father. Movement is found in this action as well:

Jesus answered him, “If anyone loves me, he will keep my word, and my Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him. (John 14:23)

As the Son is with/προς the Father; the Father is with/προς the Son.


Notes:
1. Fredrick William Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, The University Chicago Press, 2000, p873-874
2. Ibid., pp. 874-875
3. Robert G. Hall, "The Reader as Apocalyptist", John's Gospel and Intimations of the Apocalyptic, Eds. Catrin H. Williams and Christopher Rowland, Bloomsbury Publishing, 2013, p. 268

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  • Thank you. Appreciated and up-voted +1.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 12 at 9:06

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