From the description of events, one concludes Jesus read from the scroll of Isaiah:
16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up. And as was his custom, he went to the synagogue on the Sabbath day, and he stood up to read. 17 And the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was given to him. He unrolled the scroll and found the place where it was written...20 And he rolled up the scroll and gave it back to the attendant and sat down. And the eyes of all in the synagogue were fixed on him. 21 And he began to say to them, “Today this Scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing.” 22
And all spoke well of him and marveled at the gracious words that were coming from his mouth. And they said, “Is not this Joseph's son?” (Luke 4) [ESV]
Essentially there are two possibilities: Jesus read from a scroll written in Hebrew or Greek:
1 The Spirit of the LORD [YHVH] God is upon me,
because the LORD [YHVH] has anointed me
to bring good news to the poor;
he has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted,
to proclaim liberty to the captives,
and the opening of the prison to those who are bound;
2 to proclaim the year of the LORD's [YHVH] favor,
and the day of vengeance of our God;
to comfort all who mourn; [ESV]
1 Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me; he has sent me to preach glad tidings to the poor, to heal the broken in heart, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and recovery of sight to the blind; 2 to declare the acceptable year of the Lord, and the day of recompence; to comfort all that mourn LXX-Isaiah
18 “The Spirit of the Lord is upon me,
because he has anointed me
to proclaim good news to the poor.
He has sent me to proclaim liberty to the captives
and recovering of sight to the blind,
to set at liberty those who are oppressed,
19 to proclaim the year of the Lord's favor.”
First, as many commentators note, Jesus stopped reading in the middle of verse 2; He did not include "...and the day of vengeance/retribution..." Next, what Jesus said is not an exact reading of either the Hebrew or Greek texts as we have them, but is closely aligned to the LXX and follows verbatim in some places:
LXX: 1 πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾽ ἐμέ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῗς ἀπέσταλκέν
με ἰάσασθαι τοὺς συντετριμμένους τῇ καρδίᾳ κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῗς
2 καλέσαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτὸν ...
Luke: 18 πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾽ ἐμέ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς ἀπέσταλκέν
με κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς ἀνάβλεψιν ἀποστεῖλαι τεθραυσμένους
19 κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν [GNT]
Luke: 18 πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾽ ἐμέ οὗ ἕνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίζεσθαι πτωχοῖς ἀπέσταλκέν
με ἰὰσασθαι τοὺς συντετριμμένους τὴν καρδίαν κηρύξαι αἰχμαλώτοις ἄφεσιν καὶ τυφλοῖς
ἀνάβλεψιν ἀποστεῖλαι τεθραυσμένους ἐν ἀφέσειι
19 κηρύξαι ἐνιαυτὸν κυρίου δεκτόν [TR]
The beginning, "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor..." is one portion where the LXX is quoted verbatim:
LXX: πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾽ ἐμέ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς
Luke: πνεῦμα κυρίου ἐπ᾽ ἐμέ οὗ εἵνεκεν ἔχρισέν με εὐαγγελίσασθαι πτωχοῖς
The LXX has an important difference from the Hebrew: the Tetragrammaton is not simply YHVH, but אדני יהוה, literally adonai YHVH (not Sovereign LORD as in the NIV). In other words, the original Hebrew text for Isaiah 61 includes adonai (Lord) which is typically used in place of the Tetragrammaton. Thus, if Jesus had pronounced YHVH, He should also have included "Lord" and said "Lord YHVH."
If Jesus was reading from the Hebrew Isaiah, then He failed to call YHVH, "Lord." This would not have caused those who heard what Jesus said to "marvel at the gracious words..." Rather, they would have been offended over Jesus' failure to acknowledge YHVH as "Lord" and such a "misreading" would very likely be considered blasphemy.
Jesus did not pronounce the Tetragrammaton when He read from the scroll of Isaiah in Nazareth.
As can be seen by the textual variations found in manuscripts of Luke, it is possible the manuscript Jesus was reading from had variations from what is considered to be the original text. However, it is most unlikely any Hebrew manuscript would omit "adonai" from the phrase adonai YHVH אדני יהוה. Therefore the evidence strongly supports the conclusion Jesus read from a Greek translation of Isaiah.
Moreover, if Jesus had decided to alter the text, as differences suggest He may have done in other places, then He still would have been required to include adonai to avoid failing to acknowledge YHVH as Lord. The failure of any manuscript evidence of "Lord Lord..." in Luke not only eliminates that possibility, but, clearly, if Jesus had called YHVH by name and not acknowledged Him as "Lord" then He was guilty of blasphemy and therefore would not have been sinless
(cf. Hebrews 4:15).