ESV Romans 11:35. "Or who has given a gift to him that he might be repaid?".
Of the 28 versions on Bible Hub 21 of them put the word "first" when translating proedoken. e.g. "Or who has first given to Him And it shall be repaid to Him". NKJV. The other 7, e.g. the ESV, leave out the word "first".
Commenting on this verse Barnes says: "Thus Paul contrary to the prevailing doctrine of the Jews, shows that no one could plead his own merits, or advance with a claim on God. All the favours of salvation must be bestowed by mercy or grace".
Gill's Exposition: "See Job 41:11. No man can give to God anything, which he has not first given him".
My comment: What we give to God is not more or less than an outworking of what He has first given us. "For from him and through him and to him are all things", Romans 11:36.
What reason[s] might the ESV have for putting "has given" and not "has first given"?