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One doesn't see the connection in the English translations. These three Hebrew words חֶ֛סֶד מִשְׁפָּ֥ט וּצְדָקָ֖ה are the same in these two verse, except צְדָקָ֖ה is in its plural form in Micah 6:5, attributing righteousness to God, while where we would expect צְדָקָ֖ה in Micah 6:8 is וְהַצְנֵ֥עַ לֶ֖כֶת עִם־אֱלֹהֶֽיךָ (and to walk humbly with your God, ESV). Thus, did Micah imply that only God is righteous?
The third verse, Micah 6:5, is because צְדָקָ֖ה is out of place, not in 6:8.
The pattern the OP notices is more widespread than just the two texts quoted. here is a greater sample:
Note the same three trio of virtues is consistently repeated as summarizing the whole duty of mankind.
The answer to the question, "Is only God righteous" is obviously yes simply because, no one else is righteous according to Rom 3:10-18 - no one righteous, no not one! We must seek the righteousness of God, Rom 1:17, 3:5, 10:3, 2 Cor 5:21, 2 Peter 1:1, etc.
This pattern of a righteous God is taken directly from the OT: Ps 4:1, 7:9, Zech 8:8, Isa 45:21, Prov 21:12, etc. The whole passage of Rom 3:10-18 is a series of quotes from the OT such as Ps 14:1-7, 53:1-6, Isa 59:1-17, Ps 5:9, 140:3, 10:7, 36:1 which together mean that man is unrighteous and only God is righteous.
