How do you attribute Agabus' prophecies
With Hebrews 1:1-2? Stating that God spoke through the prophets but now speaks through Christ, but Agabus spoke prophecy after the resurrection?
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Hebrews 1:1 In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe.
He has spoken
Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's Greek 2980: A prolonged form of an otherwise obsolete verb; to talk, i.e. Utter words.
The AORIST tense always conveys a single, discreet action (i.e. simple aspect). This is the most common tense for referring to action in the past.
The verses refer to the life events of Jesus Christ, the Son of God. It does not preclude others speaking for God after Jesus resurrection. Jesus himself proclaims a continuity in
John 14:26 But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
Agabus and Apostle John who wrote the Book of Revelation operated according to this principle.
The statement in Hebrews 1:1 simply says that God has spoken through Jesus. This does NOT mean that following the resurrection, God ONLY spoke through the Son. If that were the case, ALL of the New Testament would be invalid as it was written by prophets.
Thus, Hebrews 1:1 does NOT mean that the first Advent of Jesus suddenly turned off the prophetic tap. Indeed, all of the NT was written after the resurrection and via which we know what we know about Jesus!
There are lots of prophets who spoke after the resurrection:
This is not surprising as one of the most prominent spiritual gifts given to the Church is that of prophecy, Acts 13:1, 1 Tim 4:14, 1 Cor 12:28, 14:1, 22, 32, Eph 4:11, etc.