What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1?

Question

What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

New Living Translation In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

English Standard Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Berean Study Bible In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Berean Literal Bible In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

New American Standard Bible In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

New King James Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

In early Greek MSS that we have, they were all written in capital letters. However, in English a proper noun is capitalised for a reason (i.e. to indicate that it is a name or a title). In my question, it relates to this understanding of English grammar. Does the Greek phrase ὁ λόγος , the subject of John 1:1, refer to a title or name of a person so that it is accurately translated into English as a proper noun?

Answer 1

"Word" (Logos) being capitalized by some versions is consistent with some versions capitalizing all of Jesus numerous titles. Here is a sample:

• Word, Word of God, Word of Life, John 1:1, 14, 1 John 1:1, Rev 19:13
• First and Last, Rev 1:17, 22:13. Compare Isa 41:4, 44:6, 48:12
• Emanuel, Matt 1:22
• Savior, 2 Tim 1:10, Totus 1:4, 2:13, 3:6. Compare Isa 43:3, 11, 45:17, 21
• "I Am", John 8:58. Compare Ex 3:13-15; Deut 32:39, Isa 41:4, 43:10, 13, 25, 45:19, 46:4, 48:12, 51:12, 52:6 (LXX)
• Shepherd, Heb 13:20, 1 Peter 2:25, 5:4, Rev 7:17. Compare Psalm 23:1; Eze 34:11ff
• Lord of all, Acts 10:36, Rom 10:12, Col 1:15. Compare Deut 10:17, Josh 3:11, 13, Ps 97:5, Zech 4:14, 6:5, Mic 4:13.
• Lord of lords, Rev 17:14, 19:16. Compare Deut 10:17, Ps 136:3, 26.

Most these titles, in the OT are titles of YHWH and are used in the NT of Jesus.

Answer 2

O λογος (The Word) , the subject in John 1:1, is a title of person, specifically of someone who is God (θεος).

ὁ λόγος was one of the many titles of Jesus in the gospel of John. Jesus had the titles The Word, The Lamb, The Bread, The Light, The Door in the Johannine gospel (1:1, 1:14, 6:35, 8:12, 10:9). Neither word nor light nor door nor lamb nor bread is a person. Yet all of those were ascribed to Christ as titles. The evidence that λογος is a title in John 1 is that it is the subject (ο λογος) being described by a predicate noun θεος which means that the subject was being described as a person, specifically as a divine person. Majority of scholars agree with the Trinitarian interpretation that ὁ λόγος was one of the many titles of Jesus Christ/the Son of God.

On the GJohn, it’s clear that the text makes the Son/Logos the agent of creation of “all things/everything”. That puts the Son/Logos on the side of the line with God. At the same time, from 1:1 onward the text also distinguishes the Son/Logos from God “the Father”. This tension is the central factor that drove later christological debates. So, of course, the Son/Logos isn’t the Father. But there is no hint in GJohn that the Son/Logos is a creature. He’s just “there” with God. (From Larry Hurtado's comments in Even Higher Christology in the Gospel of John: Frey’s Edinburgh Essay, Larry Hurtado, May 24, 2019).

Only personal beings were described as θεὸς in the Bible. Thus, it makes sense that the Word was a who in John 1:1, having been described as 'God'.

The subject being described is always a personal being and never an impersonal thing for θεὸς semantically refers to a personal entity in the Bible. The word θεὸς in the predicative nominative case has a sentence construction of (subject + verb + θεὸς).

You are gods... (Psalm 82:6, John 10:35) 
You are my God... (Psalm 118:28)
...the Word was God (John 1:1)
...you make yourself God (John 10:33)
...he was a god (Acts 28:6) 

The Word was described as θεὸς (God). Thus, the Word was God (not flesh) in v 1 but then this same Word, who was already God in v.1, became flesh in v. 14. Ergo, John 1:1 speaks of Jesus Christ pre-existing as God and that John 1:14 speaks of the incarnation of Jesus Christ.

Answer 3

Capitalising logos in John 1 has nothing to do with Jesus being called 'Word of God'.

1 John 1:1 does, but this is an personal experience of the author and peers - touching, seeing - this is not the beginning of creation, but the new beginning Jesus made possible. Note it is the life of the Father which the 'word' (which is now Jesus) manifests and has the appropriate title/role or name.

What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life — and the life was manifested, and we have seen and testify and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us.

Continuing, it has nothing to do with any of Jesus' titles granted him at various times after his arrival on the earth scene. When John 1:1 refers to the logos, Jesus wasn't born yet in John's account of events.

The logos becoming flesh was Jesus' grand entry - and is certainly NOT part of, 'in the beginning' concerning the creation of all things! That was the role of God through the/His logos - and Jesus being appointed the heir to. Heb 1:1-4

Seeing as the personhood (he, him) attributed to the logos is not clearly revealed at all, and due to the complete lack of any other reference to this abstract that John has delivered, there is no substance to making more of it than John intended. John is revealing what the logos is, not who.

The word logos is used many times without capitalisation - everywhere except the translators treatment of John. Excepting those few where we have the Word of Life or Word of God, Rev 19:13

Note Rev 1:2 '...who testified to the word of God' no capital there in any version.

(Is Jesus the word of God or not? They don't seem to have made up their minds)

Heb 4 :12 The word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword…

If anywhere, one would think this verse deserved capitalisation... (Youngs renders 'reckoning')

Now this is but one example of a complete abandonment of a capitalisation bias that has otherwise plagued the John verses - leading to doctrine based on ideas and guesses - not solid biblical evidence.

Logos is the Gr. for many English words as noted below;

Luke 7:17 And the news about Jesus spread…

John 6:60 This is a difficult statement…

Phil 2:16 holding fast the word of life…

Matt 5:37 But let your statement be, 'Yes, yes…

1 Cor 2:4 my message and my preaching were not in persuasive words…

What is the justification for capitalising logos in John?

Nothing more than a biased appropriation of various parts of scripture to enhance a Jesus to be more than he is. Jesus is a man without sin, the son of God.

There is no clear expression of the logos being a ‘person’, and is never mentioned again- except in connection with Jesus. Jesus was sent to die, if the logos is now Jesus, this logos ‘who’ is God, cannot die. Some may be comfortable using philosophy, traditional logic and theological myth to reimagine the word of God to fit human constructs, but that’s not what we’re here for.

John does not say, ‘in the beginning was Jesus’. We must not conflate logos with Jesus unless the text indicates this for us, as in v14. Jesus, God, the apostles and prophecy all speak of Jesus as a man - why must we insist he is God?