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 Genesis 24:64 When Rebekah looked up and saw Isaac, she quickly dismounted from her camel. 65“Who is that man walking through the fields to meet us?” she asked the servant. And he replied, “It is my master.” So Rebekah covered her face with her veil. 

When Rebekah met the servant at the well earlier, she didn't cover her face. What was the point of doing it now?

Also later, there is the story of Judah and his daughter-in-law at

Genesis 38:15 When Judah saw her, he thought she was a prostitute, for she had covered her face.

Was veiling (one's face) a sign of prostitution in Genesis?

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  • Thanks. I've updated. – Tony Chan Sep 8 '20 at 20:50
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Rebekah did it in keeping with the ancient Oriental custom of heavily veiling a prospective bride. Here are further examples:

  • Leah likely was veiled, in keeping with that same custom, and this doubtless contributed to the success of the ruse. Gen 29:21-25. So veiling was not a symbol of modesty but just a sign of betrothal.
  • In the case of Tamar (Gen 38:14), she was veiled to cover her identity but it could also be that any woman that was near a temple had to be veiled and Tamar took advantage of that custom and sat where prostitutes normally sit.
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  • Hello @Meg - this very good answer could be greatly improved by simply quote the Bible references for the excellent examples you quote. Then it is likely to garner some up votes. I will help by doing this for you. – Dottard Sep 8 '20 at 22:20

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