Job 22:3a

What pleasure would it give the Almighty if you were righteous?

What is the answer to this question from Job, now that we know both the old and the new testaments?

2 Answers 2


First one has to establish what does it mean in the term "pleasure" when one speaks about "pleasure of God". Human pleasures can be caused by various reasons, actually 3 main reasons and causes: 1. something evil and pernicious that gives a toxic pleasure to man; for example, if you avenge your enemy, or engage into a lewd sexual exploits - both will give a short-lived toxic pleasures; 2. something not evil, but earthly and transient, like, for example, pleasure after gaining an Olympic gold medal, or having a tasty food and drink, or loosing weight through exercises and delighting in seeing one's more shred body etc. - all those give a short lived, albeit not toxic pleasures; 3. a pleasure given by God, through doing His commandments, the pleasure from the Holy Spirit connected with the non-transient perception of His eternal Peace.

But what about God's pleasure? Of course the first two pleasures are excluded from Him (I do not mean that Jesus in his human nature enjoyed, say, a tasty cheese, and in this sense we can say that somehow God enjoyed tasty cheese, but I speak about God in His eternal, uncreated divine nature). But does He or can He have the 3rd type pleasure? No, impossible, for if the physical sun gives our body a sun-tan, it does not at all mean that the physical sun can have the sun-tan itself. Similarly, even if God gives us a pleasure of perception of His eternal Peace, this does not mean at all that He Himself has the same perception of the Eternal Peace of which He is the Principle and we only receivers. It will be a sacrilegious anthropomorphization of God to relate to Holy Spirit the same pleasure that arises in us from the acceptance of the Holy Spirit in our hearts.

Thus, again, all human nouns and verbs such as "wants", "has pleasure", "anger" etc. with reference to God should be taken mystically, apophathically and transcendently, to avoid a pitfall of idolatrous anthropomorphization.


"Righteousness" (Tsedeq, צֶ֥דֶק) is one foundation of God's throne in Psalm 97:2.

Tehillim (Psalms) 97:2 [MT] "Cloud and thick darkness are around Him; righteousness and judgment are the foundation of His throne." (עָנָ֣ן וַֽעֲרָפֶ֣ל סְבִיבָ֑יו צֶ֥דֶק וּ֜מִשְׁפָּ֗ט מְכ֣וֹן כִּסְאֽוֹ)

If we are "Righteous" (Tsedaq, צְדָּ֑ק) in regards to Iyov (Job) 22:3 [MT], then we adhere to God's Law. - To ask "Does the Almighty care if you are righteous?" is rhetorical. * Yes, our Father wants us to follow His laws.

Iyov (Job) 22:3 [MT] "Does the Almighty care if you are righteous, or is there any gain if you perfect your ways?" (הַחֵ֣פֶץ לְ֖שַׁדַּי כִּ֣י תִצְדָּ֑ק וְאִם־בֶּ֜֗צַע כִּֽי־תַתֵּ֥ם דְּרָכֶֽיךָ)

  1. In regards to the 2nd question of Job 22:3, We are told by Yeshua (Jesus) Ha-Meshiach (the-Messiah) in Matthew 5:48 - "Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect."
  • How does Matthew 5:48 answer Job 22:3? What pleasure would it give the Almighty?
  1. In regards to the 1st question in Job 22:3, We are told the reason the Almighty wants us to be "Righteous" in Matthew 5:45 - "that you may be children of your Father in heaven."
  • Another excellent answer. +1. You could have also quoted 1 Thess 1:2-8 about the effect that godly people have.
    – Dottard
    Aug 30, 2020 at 21:55

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