Which the difference contextual between the kiss of Arão and Judas' kiss? Exodos 4:27 and Luke 22:48


In Bible times, as now, the kiss was a symbol of tender affection. The Greek verb, φιλέω (phileó) means either (BDAG):

  • to have a special interest in someone or something, frequently with focus on close association, have affection for, like, consider someone a friend, eg, Matt 10:37, 3:15, John 16:27, 21:15-17, etc.
  • to kiss as a special indication of affection, kiss, eg, Matt 26:48, Mark 14:44, Luke 22:47, etc. The cognate noun φίλημα (philéma) = "kiss" is used in Luke 7:45, 22:48, Rom 16:16, 1 Cor 16:20, etc.

Thus, in Bible times, as now, to kiss someone is to display tender affection. This was clearly the intention with Moses and Aaron in Ex 4:27. The fact that Judas decided that a kiss would be the sign of who was to be arrested clearly amounted to an enacted lie: Judas did not feel any tender affection but acted out his part in arranging for Jesus to be arrested and tried.

This is why "Judas" has become proverbial in English and many other languages as one who displays false and misleading affection in order to do them harm.

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