Typically the question over the divinity of Jesus which leads to the belief in the Trinity, or denial thereof, is focused on verses which could indicate Jesus is God (e.g. John 1:1, 20:28, Acts 20:28, Romans 9:5, Philippians 2:6, 1 Timothy 5:21, Titus 2:14, 2 Thessalonians 1:12, 2 Peter 1:1)
However, both sides in the debate seem to take the absolute divinity of the Father as a given. Yet there are statements which describe God as distinct from the Father. For example:
Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear. (Acts 2:33 NKJV)
τῇ δεξιᾷ οὖν τοῦ θεοῦ ὑψωθεὶς τήν τε ἐπαγγελίαν τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου λαβὼν παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς ἐξέχεεν τοῦτο ὃ ὑμεῖς καὶ βλέπετε καὶ ἀκούετε
Neither the grammar (both God and Father have the article) nor the logic in this statement support the belief the writer understands God to mean only the Father. On the other hand, if the divinity of the Father as one person of God, similar to that of the Son and Holy Spirit, the statement makes sense. That is, since both God and Father are described together and the Son is specifically at the right hand of God, not at the right hand of the Father, the Father's relationship to God is the same as the Son's.
Does Acts 2:33 demonstrate the Father is not equivalent with God?