# How many hours Esther already fast at the time she go to the palace?

Suppose on Date 11 just before sunset, Esther say :
"I and my attendants will fast as you do" (Esther 4:16).

and there is a sentence like this :

• On the first day Esther fast, she suffer because it's her first time fasting.
• On the second day Esther fast, she feel better.
• On the third day Esther fast, she doesn't suffer at all.
• On the third day Esther fast, she put on her royal robes and stood in the inner court of the palace (Esther 5:1).
• After three days Esther fast, she put on her royal robes and stood in the inner court of the palace (Esther 5:1).

In my country, the understanding of the sentence above is like this:
The first day Esther fast is in Zone-02.
The second day Esther fast is in Zone-03.
The third day Esther fast is in Zone-04.
The third day Esther stood in the inner court of the palace is in Zone-04.

After three days Esther fast.... the "timing" Esther go to the palace can be after Zone-04 end (after 72 hours fast), but also can be in Zone-04 although it's not after 72 hours Esther fast - but at least it's after 48 hours she fast then she go to the palace.

So, take the "can be in Zone-04" then:
after three days Esther fast = on the third day Esther fast = the time Esther go to the palace = is in Zone-04.

we can see that in the minds of people in Bible times, “the third day” is equivalent to “after three days.”

Regarding the sentence:
On the first day Esther fast, she suffer because it's her first time fasting.
and regarding the sentence:
"the third day” is equivalent to “after three days"

My question is:
After how many hours Esther already fast at the time she go to the palace? (NOT after 72 hours of course).
In other words, in what Zone is "after the third day Esther fast" = "on the third day Esther fast" = the time Esther go to the palace ?

After receiving one answer from ctaylorgraphics, I feel that I need to put my reason which made me make this question. As follow:

I've read in some articles in the internet which say that the day Jesus died/crucified is counted as the whole day including the night before based on this Esther verse is showing the same pattern.

day one includes the day and the previous night, even though Jesus died in the day

among the Jews, in computing time, that a part of a day was to be received as the whole

a part of a day is as the whole" (n): and so, whatever was done before sun setting, or after, if but an hour, or ever so small a time, before or after it, it was reckoned as the whole preceding, or following day; and whether this was in the night part, or day part of the night day, or natural day, it mattered not, it was accounted as the whole night day

I hold to that "guidance" above and applied it to Esther verse, but then I'm unable to comprehend when I imagine it in actual event.

I mean, if I put it with an illustration like this :
On Date 11 just before the sunset, Esther say : "NOW I start to fast" (while Esther had already her dinner, her breakfast and her lunch at Zone-01/Date11)....

and there is a sentence: After a day Esther fast, she eat on the first day

Then the "actual" is:
Still in Zone-01, not long after Esther say : "NOW I start to fast", Esther eat.

Ignoring that incomprehensible "actual" above, then the answer to this question (based on the "guidance") is : In Zone-03, after 3 days Esther fast, on the third day Esther fast, Esther go to the palace.

This means three #sunsets or 3 iterations of night (לַ֣יְלָה) had passed

Based on the "guidance", then the to_the_point_answer is :
Esther go to the palace is in Zone-03 :
The first night is in Zone-01
The second night is in Zone-02
The third night is in Zone-03

"guidance" = the sentence I quote from a link.

• Karma - Thank you so much for offering this question to discuss not only the context of Esther 5:1, but also its hidden meaning. - Blessings! Commented Aug 16, 2020 at 12:53
• @ctaylorgraphics, thank you also for your comment :). Commented Aug 16, 2020 at 13:01