I was wondering if anyone had some insight on the translation of John 2:4. The verse seems to be rendered in a variety of ways, usually either that Jesus says the lack of wine is of no concern to Him, or to both Him and Mary.
All the Greek texts I found seem to contain the same phrase "Τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί", so I don't suppose the difference in translation has to do with textual variants. My limited understanding of Greek suggests that both "ἐμοὶ" and "σοί" are in the dative case, if that's of any significance. The same phrase is found a few times in the Septuagint as well as the New Testament (e.g. Judges 11:12 & Mark 5:7), where it seems to have the sense, "What conflict is there between us?" or "What do you have against me?"
καὶ λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί, γύναι; οὔπω ἥκει ἡ ὥρα μου.
A literal translation of the Greek seems a bit ambiguous in meaning:
Jesus saith to her, 'What -- to me and to thee, woman? not yet is mine hour come.'
Some popular translations include:
Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come.
And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come."
And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does that have to do with us? My hour has not yet come."
Could someone explain the phrase "Τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί" for me? And also, if you could help me understand the translation in the context of the narrative, that would be much appreciated.