Jesus said in Matthew 24:36 (NKJV).

But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only.

But the book of Revelation is written by John and revealed by Jesus Christ.

My question is: How can I reconcile the two?

If Jesus Christ did reveal the revelation, that means he knows the hour which contradicts his statement unless the revelation does not refer to the hour.

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    – Dottard
    Aug 11, 2020 at 1:57
  • 1
    Are you suggesting by this question that the book of Revelation reveals the time of Christ's coming? If not, why does there need to be any reconciliation? If so, where in Revelations is the time of Jesus return revealed?
    – Dottard
    Aug 11, 2020 at 1:59

1 Answer 1


The Revelation of Jesus Christ is that which God gave unto him :

The Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave unto him ... [Revelation 1:1, KJV]

If it did reveal the time of his coming, then it is of God that it is revealed.

But I do not believe that the exact time is revealed.

The circumstances of his coming are revealed, just as we see in 2 Thessalonians 2 where Paul gives clear indications of what situation will prevail immediately before the Lord's return. But Paul does not speak of the actual timing - the 'day' and the 'hour'. Nor is 'the day and the hour' revealed in the Book of the Revelation.

But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. [Matthew 24:36, KJV]

There is nothing here to 'reconcile'.


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