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English Standard Version Acts 27:10

saying, “Sirs [Ἄνδρες], I perceive that the voyage will be with injury and much loss, not only of the cargo and the ship, but also of our lives.”

Only 11 verses later, apparently addressing to the same group of people, we have:

English Standard Version Acts 27:21

Since they had been without food for a long time, Paul stood up among them and said, “Men [Ἄνδρες], you should have listened to me and not have set sail from Crete and incurred this injury and loss.

Why did ESV translate Ἄνδρες as "Sirs" then later as "Men"?

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  • Because sir(e) initially meant male, and to sire still means to father. It was so in the 1600s, when the KJV was first translated, and the ESV (indirectly) follows its usage.
    – Lucian
    Aug 10 '20 at 3:28
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The Greek word ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός (aner, andros) always means "man". However, when used as a form of address in the vocative plural, namely, ἄνδρες (andres), it might be equivalent to the English "gentlemen" as per BDAG.

The vocative plural occurs quite rarely in Acts 14:15, 19:25, 27:10, 21, 25. Most versions translate these as "men" but some prefer "sirs"; but some like the ESV are just inconsistent.

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  • There is no inconsistency of any kind; see my comment on the main post.
    – Lucian
    Aug 10 '20 at 3:21

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