John 20:1 (KJV)
Now the first day of the week Mary Magdalene went to the tomb early, while it was still dark, and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb
From the above sentence, my understanding :
A. It is the first day of the week (I deliberately disregard the name of the day) after it has just past around more than 7 hours but less than 15 hours. Say for example, that "early" of the first day of the week is 5 AM when Mary go to the tomb, assuming the the first day of the week starts at 6 PM, then 5 AM of the first day of the week has past 11 hours.
Next verse:
John 20:19 (KJV)
Then, THE SAME DAY at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled, for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, and said to them, “Peace be with you.
From the above sentence, my understanding :
B. Jesus showing up to the disciples is when the first day of the week has past no more than 7 hours.
Illustration of the chronology:
The time Jesus rise from the death is on the first day of the week, say 7 PM.
In the evening of the same day, the first day of the week, say, around 9 PM Jesus show Himself to the disciples
Early of the first day of the week, still dark - say, around 5 AM Mary go to the tomb.
Combining those two of my understanding, it leads me to conclude :
The first people who see Jesus after His death are the disciples, not Mary Magdalene.
I've tried to put another option like this : "it is the same day, the first day of the week - and it is a week later". But after I look to another version, most of the version use "that" - for example:
New International Version
On the evening of THAT first day of the week, when the disciples were together, with the doors locked for fear of the Jewish leaders, Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you!"
which cause me to think the "that" is referring to the same day when Mary go to the tomb.
Later on, the writer use specific timing in verse 26 (KJV):
after eight days His disciples were again inside, and Thomas with them
Continuing my question before in here, it is confirmed that the "after 8 days" in verse 26 is referred from the day of the resurrection.
Please note, my understanding on point-A and point-B is using the Jewish point of view of the "timing" when day begin. As to be simple, I use : in the Jewish pov, the day begin at 6 PM ----> so, "the first day of the week begin on 6 PM".
That's why in verse 19, I propose that event happen is on the first day of the week after 11 hours past (assuming Mary go to the tomb at 5 AM on the first day of the week).
Then on verse 21, I propose that event happen is on the first day of the week after 3 hours has past (assuming that Jesus show up to disciples at 9 PM on the first day of the week).
But it seems most people put the "timing" the event of verse 21 is on the first day of the week after 27 hours has past ? Hence the chronology : Mary first who see Jesus (say at 6 AM), then 15 hours later, in the evening (assumed at 9 pm) the disciples see Jesus.
What did I miss here ?
(once again, I deliberately avoid to use the name of the day to avoid me more confuse).
For addition:
The Bible in my own language, put the "timing" is at night.
This is the language "Ketika hari sudah malam" = "when day already night".
Also Bibletools about John 20:19 in this page mention:
the doors were shut; which is not merely expressive of the time of night,
and this :
It was not uncommon for the early Christians to hold their meetings for worship in the night. In times of persecution they were forbidden to assemble during the day, and hence, they were compelled to meet in the night