Proverbs 24:17 (NASB) Do not rejoice when your enemy falls, And do not let your heart be glad when he stumbles;
Proverbs 24:17 (KJV) Rejoice not when thine enemy falleth, and let not thine heart be glad when he stumbleth:
Psalm 54:4-7 (NASB)
4 Behold, God is my helper; The Lord is [a]the sustainer of my soul. 5 [b]He will recompense the evil to [c]my foes; [d]Destroy them in Your [e]faithfulness.
6 [f]Willingly I will sacrifice to You; I will give thanks to Your name, O Lord, for it is good. 7 For [g]He has delivered me from all [h]trouble, And my eye has looked with satisfaction upon my enemies.
Psalm 54:4-7 (NKJV)
4 Behold, God is my helper; The Lord is with those who [a]uphold my life. 5 He will repay my enemies for their evil. [b]Cut them off in Your [c]truth.
6 I will freely sacrifice to You; I will praise Your name, O Lord, for it is good. 7 For He has delivered me out of all trouble; And my eye has seen its desire upon my enemies.
Reconciling biblical scripture verses dealing with imprecation and biblical scripture verses that emphasize blessing those who curse you and loving your enemies is challenging.
Also, I suppose that this question posting would have some similarties to this other posting ( ( Romans 12:14 "14 Bless those who persecute [d]you; bless and do Not curse.") can stand side-by-side withOut contradicting the imprecatory scripture ) because of the imprecatory nature of the biblical verses in question.
Keeping Proverbs 24:17 biblical verse in mind, how would we go about justifying or reasoning as to why the author of Psalm 54:5-7 would go about proclaiming that he is satisfied with his enemies were "destroyed" or "recompensed for their evil"?
(Side Note) IMHO, the KJV translation is a bit more preferable to me because it seems to emphasize God's desire on the fate of the enemies, and Not the author's desire or satisfaction on the fate of the enemies.
Psalm 54:4-7 (KJV)
4 Behold, God is mine helper: the Lord is with them that uphold my soul.
5 He shall reward evil unto mine enemies: cut them off in thy truth.
6 I will freely sacrifice unto thee: I will praise thy name, O Lord; for it is good.
7 For he hath delivered me out of all trouble: and mine eye hath seen his desire upon mine enemies.
Keeping Proverbs 24:17 biblical verse in mind, how would we go about justifying or reasoning as to why the author of Psalm 54:5-7 would go about proclaiming that he is satisfied with his enemies were "destroyed" or "recompensed for their evil"?
Update: @dottard posting gave me a new perspective when it comes to the Psalm 54:7 verse. One viewpoint could be looking at subdued enemy with relief & withOut anymore fear, but Not gloating and/or Not in triumphalism also. Like a Violent Bear chasing you in the forest, and you are obviously in a fearful state but after God helps you physically defeat the bear, you look upon the subdued bear with relief & withOut anymore fear, but Not gloating and Not in triumphalism. You are just relieved that the battle with enemy is over, and you won. @dottard answer posting about the Hebrew is really interesting, and I just wanted to re-emphasize it here: ... in the Hebrew, words like "gloat", "satisfaction", "desire", "triumph", etc, do not exist - all such are interpretive. The Hebrew consists of just three words: וּ֝בְאֹיְבַ֗י רָאֲתָ֥ה עֵינִֽי׃ , = "and upon my enemies my eye has seen";
Also, @dottard also mentions another important point here:
"Even the LORD when he comes to destroy the wicked, He calls this His "alien task" (Isa 28:21), because the LORD takes no pleasure in the death of anyone (Eze 18:32), and no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Eze 33:11)."