What is the connection, if any, between the author of the gospel of John having Jesus use "woman" to address Mary Magdalene when she encounters him at the tomb (Jn 20:15) just as he has used the same word to address his mother at the foot of the cross (Jn 19:26)? Note: Earlier in the story (Jn 20:13), two angels address her as "woman." Further, why does the author of John have Jesus switch from addressing Mary Magdalene as "woman" to addressing her as "Mary" (Jn 20:16)?
11But Mary stood weeping outside the tomb, and as she wept she stooped to look into the tomb. 12And she saw two angels in white, sitting where the body of Jesus had lain, one at the head and one at the feet. 13They said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping?” She said to them, “They have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid him.” 14Having said this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing, but she did not know that it was Jesus. 15Jesus said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping? Whom are you seeking?” Supposing him to be the gardener, she said to him, “Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away.” 16Jesus said to her, “Mary.”