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Psalm 49:5-9 (NASB)
5 Why should I fear in days of adversity, When the iniquity of my [b]foes surrounds me,
6 Even those who trust in their wealth And boast in the abundance of their riches?
7 No man can by any means redeem his brother Or give to God a ransom for him—
8 For the redemption of [c]his soul is costly, And he should cease trying forever—
9 That he should live on eternally, That he should not [d]undergo decay.

Psalm 49:5-9 (KJV)
5 Wherefore should I fear in the days of evil, when the iniquity of my heels shall compass me about?
6 They that trust in their wealth, and boast themselves in the multitude of their riches;
7 None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom for him:
8 (For the redemption of their soul is precious, and it ceaseth for ever:)
9 That he should still live for ever, and not see corruption.

As someone reads over KJV's Psalm 49:5-9, the use phrase "None of them" strongly suggests/hints that the author is referring to the aforementioned people who trust in their wealth, riches, materialism, etc., will Not be able to redeem their brother.  Therefore, the KJV's Psalm 49:7(KJV) translation is definite.(I'm rusty and weak when it comes to language grammar phrases or words so please forgive me if I'm wrong)

However, when reading over NASB's Psalm 49:5-9, the use of the phrase "No man" seems to suggest/hint that No human being can redeem his brother.  Therefore, the NASB's Psalm 49:7(NASB) translation is indefinite. ( Again, I'm rusty and weak when it comes to language grammar phrases or words so please forgive me if I'm wrong)

Psalm 49:5-9 ( Westminster Leningrad Codex (WLC))

5 אַטֶּ֣ה לְמָשָׁ֣ל אָזְנִ֑י אֶפְתַּ֥ח בְּ֝כִנּ֗וֹר חִידָתִֽי׃

6 לָ֣מָּה אִ֭ירָא בִּ֣ימֵי רָ֑ע עֲוֺ֖ן עֲקֵבַ֣י יְסוּבֵּֽנִי׃

7 הַבֹּטְחִ֥ים עַל־חֵילָ֑ם וּבְרֹ֥ב עָ֝שְׁרָ֗ם יִתְהַלָּֽלוּ׃

8 אָ֗ח לֹא־פָדֹ֣ה יִפְדֶּ֣ה אִ֑ישׁ לֹא־יִתֵּ֖ן לֵאלֹהִ֣ים כָּפְרֽוֹ׃

9 וְ֭יֵקַר פִּדְי֥וֹן נַפְשָׁ֗ם וְחָדַ֥ל לְעוֹלָֽם׃

Unfortunately, I do Not know any Hebrew at all.

Update: Furthermore, @nigel-j brings up a very good point about an English translation that uses the term "No man" as being problematic because it would go against the "Hypostatic Union" doctrine which states that Jesus Was The God-Man (Theanthropic Man)

In any case, could someone please read over the Hebrew shown above, and provide their assessment as to whether Psalm 49:7(WLC) suggests/hints that the author is referring to the aforementioned people who trust in their wealth, riches, materialism, etc.? Or Is the aforementioned Hebrew scripture also referring to something along the lines of "No human being"?

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    "of them" in the KJV is supplied by the translators, presumably because they thought that is what the Hebrew implied. Most modern version do not have "of them".
    – Dottard
    Jul 12, 2020 at 11:43
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    Does the Hebrew have the word 'man' in it or is the wording 'none' or 'no-one' ? 'No man' would not be - strictly - correct since in the humanity of Jesus Christ, redemption was achieved. So 'none' (referring back to those that trust in wealth) I assume to be the wording. And the KJV is understandable, referring back to it.
    – Nigel J
    Jul 12, 2020 at 16:53
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    @DerÜbermensch I don't agree. Jesus Christ possesses all the attributes of humanity : none excepted. But I agree; he is God manifest in flesh.
    – Nigel J
    Jul 13, 2020 at 0:57
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    @DerÜbermensch 'Jesus Christ of Nazareth' identifies a humanity. And that humanity is the manifestation of the Son of God. I initially stated '... in the humanity of Jesus Christ, redemption was achieved ...' The genuine fact that Jesus Christ is more than just human does not mean that his humanity is any less than real manhood.
    – Nigel J
    Jul 13, 2020 at 1:29
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    @DerÜbermensch I appreciate your pursuit of this. And I am not averse to discussing further. I think it would be genuinely edifying. But the system is discouraging further comment. If you wish to make a chat room and invite me, I am wiling to continue. Regards.
    – Nigel J
    Jul 13, 2020 at 1:36

2 Answers 2

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The LXX has,

ἀδελφὸς οὐ λυτροῦται λυτρώσεται ἄνθρωπος οὐ δώσει τῷ θεῷ ἐξίλασμα αὐτοῦ

With ἀδελφὸς and ἄνθρωπος both being declined in the nominative case, the translator interpreted the Hebrew as though it were divided into the two clauses אָח לֹא־פָדֹה יִפְדֶּה (“a brother shall certainly not redeem”) and אִישׁ לֹא־יִתֵּן לֵאלֹהִים כָּפְרוֹ (“a man shall not give God his ransom”). This seems to be a reasonable translation of the Hebrew, especially since there is no conjunction separating the Hebrew clauses which would support the reading of the King James Version’s “nor.”

The context of the psalm is not merely redemption from slavery, but the redemption of the soul (פִּדְיוֹן נַפְשָׁם)1 from “the power of the grave.”2 It is this for which no man can pay God the ransom required for the redemption, because it is costly (וְיֵקַר). The psalmist concludes that God Himself will redeem man’s soul.3

Footnotes

        1 Psa. 49:8
        2 Psa. 49:15
        3 ibid.

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    @crazyTech—The bold-faced text is essentially a direct translation of the Hebrew, since your primary question was how to translate the Hebrew.
    – Der Übermensch
    Jul 12, 2020 at 20:37
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Credit: Volunteer at https://www.jewsforjesus.org/

Context is key in things like this, I would say. Ryrie Study Bible (NASB) has a footnote which says The thought is this: Man cannot purchase from God additional days in order to extend his life. 7th volume of Albert Barnes notes on the Old Testament (edited by Robert Frew) says this about Psalm 49:7 "None of them can by any means redeem his brother." None of those who are rich. This verse might be literally rendered, 'a brother cannot by redeeming, redeem; a man cannot give to God his own ransom.' The passage, therefore, may mean either, as in our version, that no one, however rich, can redeem a brother-- his own brother by his wealth; or, that a brother-- one who retains the relation of a brother-- cannot rescue another from death.

I pray this helps. Please let us know if you would like to get our free, helpful Jews for Jesus publications. LORD bless you indeed.

Let's just reiterate what the aforementioned volunteer at https://www.jewsforjesus.org/ has written. Psalm 49:7-8 is surrounded by verses that are cynical about those who are in bondage with their worldly wealth & worldly power. Therefore, keeping in mind said context, it strongly suggests/hints/implies that 49:7-8 is saying that people in bondage with their worldly wealth & worldly power can Never redeem his brother Or give to God a ransom for him. Furthermore, 49:7-8 does Not go against "Hypostatic Union" doctrine which states that Jesus Was The God-Man (Theanthropic Man)

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