“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” ‭‭John‬ ‭1:1‬ ‭

The Word was God

“Sanctify them in the truth; your word is truth.” ‭‭John‬ ‭17:17‬ ‭

God’s Word is truth

“Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.” ‭‭John‬ ‭14:6‬ ‭

Jesus says He is the truth

Hence the Word is Jesus by implication who is therefore God

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    Not only reasonable, I suspect that it is a chief reason these verses were inspired.
    – EvilSnack
    Jul 5, 2020 at 20:29
  • Reasonable ? Yes. Mandatory ? No.
    – Lucian
    Jul 6, 2020 at 2:17
  • @NihilSineDeo I was merely making an observation that "some" when reading what you said may think the "Logos/Word" might understand you to mean that Jesus Christ is the spoken word. I was not trying to "preempt" anything, just making an observation for the sake of clarity, that's all. Would you agree that it is possible for some to look at it from that viewpoint?
    – Mr. Bond
    Jul 6, 2020 at 2:25
  • @NihilSineDeo I want to make an observation about John 17:17 that you quoted. "Sanctify them in the truth, Thy word is truth." It should be noted that the "word" in this verse is the spoken word. Some of the non-christian cults latch on to John 1:1 and say Jesus Christ is the spoken word or He is the "plan, thoughts and purpose of God." The "Logos/Word" is a person, Jesus Christ. In other words, the Son was with God in a close personal relationship. John 1:18. Notice the context back at John 17:20. Jesus prays for His disciples and others to believe in Him through their word
    – Mr. Bond
    Jul 6, 2020 at 2:49
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    @Lucian—But, neither of those are true. The Torah is the Law of Moses which was given to Moses at Sinai, and he then promulgated it to the children of Israel. Gal. 3:17: “the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after...” Notice that it does not say anything to the effect of the law being eternal. Rather, it indicates the law was 430 years after the covenant God made with Abraham. And, “rabbi is a walking Torah” is not biblical (sounds ad hoc), so not sure how it bears on this discussion. Jul 6, 2020 at 14:14

3 Answers 3


I agree with the connection made by the OP. Without detracting from this, let add to it by providing further evidence.

John makes a similar connection at the start of his first epistle:

  • 1 John 1:1, 2 - That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our own eyes, which we have gazed upon and touched with our own hands—this is the Word of life. And this is the life that was revealed; we have seen it and testified to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life that was with the Father and was revealed to us.

Of all the NT writers, John uses what in Greek logic are known as category statements more than anyone else and most of these have Jesus as their subject. That is, John teaches more about Jesus and God via category statements than any one else. The most famous category statement of John is found in 1 John 4:8, 16 where he famously asserts:

God is love.

Back to Jesus. The Gospel of John contains a series of category statements based on various well-known metaphors:

  1. “I am” the Bread of Life (John 6:35-51) - a reference to the manna of the desert wanderings as well as the shew-bread in the OT tabernacle.
  2. “I am” the Light of the world (John 8:12) - a reference to the menorah in the temple and the parade of lights, one of the Jewsish festivals
  3. “I am” the Door of the sheep (John 10:7-9) - see #4 below.
  4. “I am” the Good Shepherd (John 10: 11-14) – a reference to YHWH as the great shepherd in places like Ps 23 & Eze 34:11 etc.
  5. “I am” the Resurrection & Life (John 11:25) - this may allude to Job 19:25-27 but this is not clear.
  6. “I am” the Way, Truth & Life (John 14:6) - a constant theme of John. In John 1:18 he declares that Jesus is "full of grace and truth." John 17:17 also says that "Your word/Word is truth."
  7. “I am” the Vine (John 15:1-5) - a reference to a metaphor of the vine in the OT.

John 1:14 establishes that Jesus is the Logos/Word. John then has a series of assertions around this noted by the OP as more category statements:

The Word was God (John 1:1) and Your word/Word is Truth. (John 17:17)

But there is more. Jesus repeatedly claimed to be the "I Am" of the the OT referring directly to Ex 3:13-15 and its subsequent use in the LXX in places like Deut 32:39, Isa 41:4, 43:10, 13, 25, 45:19, 46:4, 48:12, 51:12, 52:6. (This is clearer in Greek that in English.)

  1. John 4:26 – “Then Jesus said, ‘I am.’” [To the Samaritan woman at the well.]
  2. John 6:20 – “But then [Jesus] said to them, ‘I am. Fear not.’” [To the frightened disciples in the boat.]
  3. John 8:24 – “If you do not trust/believe that I am, you will die in your sins.”
  4. John 8:28 – “When you will lift up the Son of Man, then you will trust/know that I am.”
  5. John 8:58 – “Truly, truly, I say to you; before Abraham existed, I am.” [The Jews then tried to stone Him for blasphemy.] Note that this and the previous two mean that Jesus, in the space of this chapter of John 8 uses the unpredicated “I am” idea in the present (v24), future (v28) and past sense (v58). V24 & 28 appears to be tied to believers’ salvation as well.
  6. John 13:19 – “From now [on] I tell you before the occurrence, that you may believe when it occurs that, I am.”
  7. John 18: 5, 6, 8 – “He said to them, ‘I am.’ …Therefore, when He told them, ‘I am’, they fell backward to the ground.” [This occurred when the Jews tried to arrest Jesus in the garden. It could be reasonably argued that this is a case of identification. However, the fact that the arresting mob fell backward suggests that much more is intended here.]

There can be little doubt that John intended to defend the divinity of Christ (as well as His humanity; but that is another subject) by both implicit associations and explicit declarations such as:

  • John 1:1, 18, 5:17, 18, 23, 10:30, 20:28.

In the book of Revelation we have some further material: Jesus says: "I am the first and the last" (Rev 1:17, 18, 22:13) which is a direct reference to a title of YHWH/Jehovah in the OT, namely, Isa 41:4, 44:6, 48:12.

We also have John giving Jesus the title of "Lord of Lords" in Rev 17:14, 19:16 which is reference to another title of YHWH/Jehovah in the OT, viz: Deut 10:17, Ps 136:3, 26.

  • 1
    Up-voted. Powerful support from scripture itself.
    – Nigel J
    Jul 5, 2020 at 22:04
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    so John 9:9 tells us that the blind man is God too? because he said "I am"
    – Steve
    Jul 7, 2020 at 23:39
  • @user48152 - that is a case of grammatical identification because the statement has an implied predicate, namely "I am [the man]".
    – Dottard
    Jul 7, 2020 at 23:44

That Jesus is fully God, the John 1:1 (and following verses, which identify Jesus with the Logos) clearly indicate; and similarly, also John 14:6 asserts unambiguously the God-ness of Christ, because to "be Truth and Life" means that He does not participate in those divine qualities, as do creatures, but is the very Fountainhead of them (together with the Father), and such is only God.

As to the John 17:17, I think, no! - here "word" is not used in a hypostatic sense, as pertaining solely to the Son, but in the sense of divine commandments. Similarly as in John 12:48 "I will not judge, the word I have spoken will judge", here the word of Jesus is exactly the same and identical to the word of the Father, and thus is not used in a hypostatic sense as it is not used in hypostatic sense in the John 17:17 either.

I think you commit here a fallacy of "ambiguity of terms", like, to give an analogy:

I premise: "God is Spirit" (John 4:24)

II premise: "God is Jesus' Father" (Luke 2:49)

III premise: "Jesus will send from the Father the Spirit who proceeds from the Father" (John 15:26)

Conclusion (wrong!): "Jesus will send from the Father the very Father who proceeds from the very Father Himself"

The wrongness of the collusion pending on the fallacy that in the I premise the Spirit is not used in a hypostatic sense, but in a generic sense, while in the III premise it is used in a hypostatic sense.

  • So the act of sanctification is achieved apart from Christ? Through the words of the Father? Jul 7, 2020 at 19:53
  • No, for Father can do nothing but through the Son and vice versa, because all what is the Father's is the Son's also (John 17:10) words/commandments included. Jul 7, 2020 at 20:47
  • @NihilSineDeo No one is talking about the "act of sanctification." What you've originally posted would be in logic a "non-sequiter" which means, "it does not follow." Your premise is rendered invalid by a flow in its logical structure. John 1:1 is describing the Logos/Word as a person and not the "spoken" word of God. Vs2, "He/This one" was in the beginning with God." (What does you in so to speak) is you quoting John 17:17 where clearly the "word" in the verse is the spoken word. As Levan Gigineishvilli stated the Word at John 1:1 is used in a hypostasis sense referring to substance/nature.
    – Mr. Bond
    Jul 7, 2020 at 21:16
  • @Mr.Bond Sanctify them in the truth; your word is truth.” ‭‭John‬ ‭17:17‬ Jul 7, 2020 at 22:41
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    @user48152 Before I answer, which I will do in few minutes, let me comment on your “WHAT?” - for you expressed by those capitals a strange bewilderment on behalf of a commonplace theological point you can easily find in any mainstream Christian introductory manual, which tells me that you are neither Catholic, nor Orthodox, nor Protestant, nor Coptic or Armenian, nor even Nestorian, for none of the mentioned billions of believers would have shared or even understood your bewilderment. Jul 8, 2020 at 3:22

No, Jesus is not 'fully God'. He is like God, having His fullness and His image and His form. None of which make him God.

Jesus spoke truth when he said,

Now this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent. John 17:3

Jesus was in no doubt who God was - and it wasn't him. Being the son of God is not God - there were many 'sons of God'. Jesus is the only one who is without sin. No one else was in any doubt who God was. The disciples, Apostles and the whole NT is consistent in having only one God - the Father. His son Jesus is not that God.

I am the way, and the truth, and the life ‭‭John‬ ‭14:6‬

Jesus is the way to what? The Father. He speaks what? The truth about, and of, the Father. What is the life? The life of the Father that he would have after his resurrection - certainly not before as he was mortal, and that man could also have.

Making up 'truth' from inferences and speculations that doesn't fit with the rest of the biblical text is poor practise. Some like to infer that Jesus (the Son) and the Father are equal yet not one verse supports it.

Or like, 'In the beginning was the Word', 'Jesus is the Word', SO, Jesus MUST be 'in the beginning'! It's nonsensical and ignores the whole NT.

The "Logos/Word" is a person. Yes - but only when the 'word' became flesh. When was that? When he was born ~2000 yrs ago.

If Jesus was the 'word/God' in the beginning (whenever that was) then death would never be master over him.

Romans 6:9 knowing that Christ, having been raised from the dead, is never to die again; death no longer is master over Him.

As noted in a comment below by Nigel, "The death of Christ was a matter of humanity. Sin was eradicated in his death. But he, himself, did not die."

What? God didn't send His only son to die for our sins? It was just a charade!? Perfect example of making stuff up!

That is why we have many bibles inserting 'begotten' in John 3:16.

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

This way they can have an 'eternal Son' who is not mentioned anywhere from Gen to Rev, AND a human son who could die and be tempted etc.

God has only one unique son and making him begotten when the text has none of it is a shifty process and has continued the deception begun after the Apostles.

Looking at the last verse of John 14

But that the world may know that I love the Father, and as the Father has commanded Me, thus I do.

We see that Jesus is certainly not 'equal', but God's servant - unto death.

So the OP's premise that - "the Word is Jesus by implication who is therefore God", is absurd and irrational - not to mention totally unbiblical. When we allow the text to interpret itself, and not imagine strange constructs, we get closer to the truth Jesus brought.

  • The death of Jesus of Nazareth was the death of his humanity. His Spirit (his divine spirit, the Son of God) went to the Father. Yes, it is incorrect to say 'Jesus' is 'the Logos in the beginning'. But it is not incorrect to say that the Son of God was in the beginning.
    – Nigel J
    Jul 7, 2020 at 18:11
  • Jesus wasn't spirit until he was raised from the dead. That's why death was MASTER! If he failed in the FLESH he would stay dead.
    – Steve
    Jul 7, 2020 at 21:47
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    When Jesus died he yielded up the spirit ('gave up the ghost'). Prior to death he therefore was spirit (manifest in flesh).
    – Nigel J
    Jul 8, 2020 at 2:19
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    If Jesus was 'in the beginning' he didn't HAVE a spirit - He WAS spirit, therefore cannot die. John 3:16 seems a farce according to your ideas (Jesus didn't die!). All the texts about Jesus being a 'man' in NT are only half truth then?
    – Steve
    Jul 8, 2020 at 3:04
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    @user48152 You said, "Jesus wasn't spirit until he was raised from the dead." Then explain 1 Corinthians 10:4. and all drank the same spiritual drink, for they were drinking from a spiritual rock which followed them; and the rock was Christ. Psalm 78:15, Exodus 14:19, Exodus 17:6. The "Messiah/Christ" existed in the OT and He was not only physically present but He was spiritually present with the Israelites. He sustained them by manna from heaven and water from the rocks. Paul is saying it is necessary that the Christ be identified to relate the OT example to the New Testament Church.
    – Mr. Bond
    Jul 8, 2020 at 13:33

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