Was Jesus tempted in the manner described in James 1:14?
"But one is tempted by one’s own desire (ἐπιθυμίας), being lured (ἐξελκόμενος) and enticed (δελεαζόμενος) by it; 15 then, when that desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin, and that sin, when it is fully grown, gives birth to death." James 1:14-15
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin. (Hebrews 4:15)
According to James, temptation is characterised by three things prior to it becoming sin.
ἐπιθυμίας - desire, lust. passion built on strong feelings (urges). These can be positive or negative, depending on whether the desire is inspired by faith (God's inbirthed persuasion).
ἐξελκόμενος - James 1:14, where the metaphor is taken from hunting and fishing: as game is lured from its covert, so man by lust is allured from the safety of self-restraint to sin. (The language of hunting seems to be transferred here (so elsewhere, cf. Wetstein (1752) at the passage) to the seductions of a harlot, personated by ἐπιθυμία; see τίκτω.)
δελεαζόμενος - (from delear, "bait") – properly, to bait a hook or set a trap with bait; (figuratively) entice a victim into a moral trap, luring them in through their own selfish impulses.
Since Jesus was tempted as we are, yet without sin, it logically follows that Jesus only experienced temptation, but not its fruit (i.e. sin). However, the question is seeking for an answer about the nature of the tempatation of Jesus. Did he have an evil desire or lust (ἐπιθυμίας in the negative, since the word was in the context of temptation which brings forth sin)?