Was the empty tomb unclean after the resurrection?

Question

Was the empty tomb unclean according to Jewish purity laws? New tombs were not yet graves and not yet sources of uncleanliness. But once a body was put into the tomb, it became a family tomb or otherwise and entry would make one unclean for 7 days.

Numbers 19:16, Whoever in the open field touches one who has been killed by a sword, or who has died naturally, or a human bone, or a grave, shall be unclean seven days.

If, for example, in John 20, when Peter and the Beloved Disciple enter the tomb, would this have made them unclean? There had been a dead body in there for three days before it was raised. Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus laid the body in the tomb and it is possible the Mary Magdalene had been there weeping through the three days of mourning before resurrection was thought to no longer be possible.

Is there any precedent for this in the text?

A related question: Can we know if the disciples would have THOUGHT that the empty tomb was unclean? Did Peter and the Beloved Disciple, for example, in John 20, believe that they were unclean for entering the tomb with the linens on the floor?

Useful Verse:

Acts 10:28, And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I [Peter] should not call any man common or unclean.

This seems to have taken place well after the resurrection. From the timelines that I can see, Peter reluctance (3-fold refusal here) indicates that he still held Jewish cleanliness laws at least 10 years after pentecost.

Answer 1

Yes and then no in a broader sense, although this appears not to be what your Question is striving for. According to Paul, Christ had (3 days--40 or so hours previously), "wip[ed] out the handwriting in ordinances...tak[ing] it out of the way, nailing it to the cross." Col 2:14. He replaced the ceremonial law with Himself, the body of the shadows (--as He was before crucifixion too, as Mr Dot's answer indicated).

"Abolishing in His flesh the law of the commandments in ordinances, that He might create the two [Jew and Gentile] in Himself into one new man, so making peace." Eph 2:15.

Thus whether you believe in Him or not, Jewish purity laws themselves had not merely just been overridden, but legally abolished. Mingling Christ's and Paul's words, one can also use the phraseology "abolished by being fulfilled" (Mt 5:17).

If you died with Christ from the elements of the world, why, as living in the world, do you subject yourselves to ordinances: do not handle, nor taste, nor touch...[which] are not of any value..." Col 2:20-23.

"In saying, A new covenant, He has made the first old. But that which is becoming old and growing decrepit is near to disappearing." Heb 8:13. The entire old covenant.

Answer 2

Technically, on the basis of Lev 19:16, Jesus' grave would have been "unclean" following His resurrection.

However, (and this is quite important), Jesus had shown on numerous occasions that when He touched something or someone unclean (eg, lepers) He was uncontaminated and the unclean person became clean. For example:

• Matt 8:3, Jesus reached out his hand and touched the man. "I am willing," he said. "Be clean!" Immediately he was cleansed of his leprosy. See also Mark 1:41 and Luke 5:13.
• Luke 11:41, But now as for what is inside you--be generous to the poor, and everything will be clean for you.

The fact that people (eg, Peter, John, Mary) entered the tomb after the resurrection and then immediately went and went and associated with others suggests that they somehow sensed this truth and ceremonial uncleanness appears to have not been matter that concerned them.