Was the empty tomb unclean according to Jewish purity laws? New tombs were not yet graves and not yet sources of uncleanliness. But once a body was put into the tomb, it became a family tomb or otherwise and entry would make one unclean for 7 days.
Numbers 19:16, Whoever in the open field touches one who has been killed by a sword, or who has died naturally, or a human bone, or a grave, shall be unclean seven days.
If, for example, in John 20, when Peter and the Beloved Disciple enter the tomb, would this have made them unclean? There had been a dead body in there for three days before it was raised. Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus laid the body in the tomb and it is possible the Mary Magdalene had been there weeping through the three days of mourning before resurrection was thought to no longer be possible.
Is there any precedent for this in the text?
A related question: Can we know if the disciples would have THOUGHT that the empty tomb was unclean? Did Peter and the Beloved Disciple, for example, in John 20, believe that they were unclean for entering the tomb with the linens on the floor?
Acts 10:28, And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I [Peter] should not call any man common or unclean.
This seems to have taken place well after the resurrection. From the timelines that I can see, Peter reluctance (3-fold refusal here) indicates that he still held Jewish cleanliness laws at least 10 years after pentecost.