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1 Corinthians 1:25, (DRB):
For the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men.
The question is so simple:
Who is meant by God in the verse? God the father, or God the son (who is fully human and fully divine), or the holy trinity?
Excellent question here, and one that is quite instructive more generally.
Throughout this chapter, Paul makes a clear distinction between God the Father and the Jesus. Let us observe the following:
In V25 we have: For the foolishness of God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) is wiser than man’s wisdom, and the weakness of God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) is stronger than man’s strength.
Note that "God" throughout this passage occurs in both the articular (ὁ Θεὸς) and inarticular (Θεὸς) forms. Generally (with a few important exceptions that the grammar and context makes clear) the articular ὁ Θεὸς refers to God the Father.
However, in this chapter of 1 Cor 1, the distinction Paul consistently makes between God (the Father) and Jesus is quite evident and obvious. Therefore, "God" consistently refers to the Father, including V25. We see that same distinction made again in V30.
In 1 Corinthians 1, the apostle Paul distinguishes between “Jesus Christ” and God.1
Footnotes
1 1 Cor. 1:1, 1:2, 1:3, 1:4, 1:9, 1:30
For example, 1 Cor. 1:3:
Grace and peace [be] to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that “God” in 1 Cor. 1:25 refers to the Father.2
Footnotes
2 Although, elsewhere, the Word is identified as God (John 1:1), and the Father and Son within the same verse are identified as God; cf. 2 John 1:9.
The context of v. 3 indicates that "God" refers to "the Father".
1 Cor 1:3
Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
John 10:30
I and the Father are one.
John 20:28
And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
John 14:10
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works.
John 1:14
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
The divinity of Jesus has been discussed among some christian (or not fully christian) churches, such as Jehovah's witness, but mainline protestant consider Jesus as being God Himself totally. Those verses afirm the divinity of Jesus.
"For the foolishness of God is wiser than human wisdom, and the weakness of God is stronger than human strength" (NET 1 Corinthians 1:25).
The Trinity concept is hard to explain. It remains a mystery for our finite minds to fully comprehend. Let me give you my point. Well, I don't know the original Greek word used for "God" in this verse. Is there any clear distinction from the original translation?. Like this verse:
"David himself, by the Holy Spirit, said, ‘The Lord said to my lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet" (NET Matthew 24:36).
If not, then I don't see how possible it would be to refer that to the Father exclusively or to the Son exclusively.
Both share the same wisdom. The Son and the Father also share the same glory(John 17:5).
I see this verse to have a real connection between The Father and His Son Christ Jesus. I believe in the Trinity. This verse is referring to The Father or the Son but not exclusively for any.
Why do I even say that?. Because the context is about wisdom and 1 Corinthians 1:24 says Jesus is the wisdom of God. It will be impossible to separate "Wisdom" from God the Father. That omniscience attribute must always be there.
And then again Colossians 2:9 BBE states: "For in him all the wealth of God's being has a living form."
If I perceive that; that verse(1 Corinthians 1:25) refers to God the Father, then I am right. And If I perceive that verse refers to God the Son(Jesus Christ); I am right. However, that is not exclusively for the Father or the Son.
Jesus is God in flesh. He is the ''I AM." We can not rob that from Him.
