1 Peter 2:3 (GNT):

  1. εἴπερ ἐγεύσασθε ὅτι χρηστὸς ὁ Κύριος.

1 Peter 2:3 (Latin Vulgate):

  1. si gustastis quoniam dulcis Dominus

1 Peter 2:3 (DRB):

If so be you have tasted that the Lord is sweet.

What is the literal translation of both, Greek and Latin text?

I think DRB is faithful to the Latin Vulgate, but other Greek dependant translations are not the same with the Greek text.

1 Peter 2:3 (KJV):

  1. If so be ye have tasted that the Lord {cf15I is} gracious.

Does χρηστὸς in the verse mean kind, gracious or good?

Look Adam Clarke Commentary here .

Look also here .

  • χρηστὸς (chrestos), similar to χριστός (christos), means good (morally, or otherwise); applied to taste, it might reasonably be translated as sweet. (As an aside, many Greek-speaking pagans interpreted Jesus' title as the former, rather than the latter, inasmuch as anointed did not have the deep implications for Europeans -and others- as it did for Orientals, whose kings were indeed physically anointed, and who commonly employed myrrh instead of water for washing one's hair or body).
    – Lucian
    Commented Jun 9, 2020 at 10:52

1 Answer 1


In 1 Peter 2:3 the Greek text is:

εἰ ἐγεύσασθε ὅτι χρηστὸς ὁ Κύριος [NA28], OR, εἴπερ ἐγεύσασθε ὅτι χρηστὸς ὁ κύριος [Byzantine text]

(Both versions give the same results.) Some good representative literal translations of this include:

  • NASB: if you have tasted the kindness of the Lord.
  • BLB: if indeed you have tasted that the Lord is good.
  • YLT: if so be ye did taste that the Lord is gracious,

Note that these all translated the Greek χρηστὸς with either "kindness", "good", or, "gracious". These are all reasonable translations of χρηστός (chréstos) according to BDAG.

The Latin translation "dulcis" which means "sweet" (DRB) is presumably on the basis of taste, but the literal meaning of the Greek is "being morally good and benevolent". I assume that the Latin has stretched such a characteristic people to being sweet which is idiomatically correct but not literally correct.

  • what about χρηστὸς means Christ?
    – salah
    Commented Jun 8, 2020 at 2:44
  • No - Christ is Χριστός (Christos) - similar but different word.
    – Dottard
    Commented Jun 8, 2020 at 4:34

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.