2

Is the verese 31, part of Chapter 10:26-31, or stand alone with v.30?

Text: Heb 10: 26-31(ESV)

"For if we go on sinning deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a fearful expectation of judgment, and a fury of fire that will consume the adversaries. 28 Anyone who has set aside the law of Moses dies without mercy on the evidence of two or three witnesses. 29 How much worse punishment, do you think, will be deserved by the one who has trampled underfoot the Son of God, and has profaned the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has outraged the Spirit of grace? 30 For we know him who said, “Vengeance is mine; I will repay.” And again, “The Lord will judge his people.” 31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God."

Improve this question
0

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
2

The writer is issuing a warning to believers. He says, in verse 26,

"For if WE sin willfully after WE have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins."

He is speaking of the danger of rejecting Christ after having once been saved. This is the person who had once been sanctified by the blood of Christ but who now rejectes the blood of Christ and returns to his sin. This person is said to have "set aside" the faith and despised the Son of God and profaned the blood by which he had once been made clean. This he says, is regarded as an outrage against the Spirit of grace. The writer compares such as these to those who were under the Old Law who "set aside the Law of Moses." Those people "died without mercy." The fate of the apostate who abandons the Son of God is the judgment of the Lord which the writer assures us is "a fearful thing." This person's fate will be worse than the one who "set aside the law of Moses."

This warning is an addendum to what the writer says in 6:4 ff where he speaks of those who had fallen away from the faith even after having "become partakers of the Holy Spirit." Their end is to be rejected, cursed, and burned, 6:8.

Improve this answer
4
  • If one is in "danger" after "having once been saved" (eg Rm 10:9-13), then in fact one's never been saved at all. So the answer appears irrational.
    – Walter S
    Commented May 15, 2020 at 23:11
  • If one with such vivid spiritual experience as described in the context , "been never saved", then, how can assurance of salvation possible to know? Since, we too are susceptible to such fall at same point later, what should one do to be sure of the salvation before too late, if it is possible?
    – Sam
    Commented May 16, 2020 at 4:04
  • Salvation is not the issue unless one claims that knowledge saves. Where does this knowledge get equated with salvation? Is it possible that one can experience the things mentioned earlier and not be saved?
    – Bob Jones
    Commented May 16, 2020 at 13:41
  • If Sam wants to "do" to be "sure of salvation," then it's not salvation, it's Sam doing.
    – Walter S
    Commented May 16, 2020 at 18:39

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.