Jesus said to her,

  1. ...; we know what we worship, NKJV)
  2. ..., we worship what we know (The Interlinear Bible)
  3. ...; we worship what we know (NASB)

Can 1 Corinthians 15:28 be taken as a corresponding passage to this verse?

  • (-1) for asking self-evident questions. (Since Jesus is the Son of God, and since the Decalogue commands children to honor their parents, the answer should be relatively straightforward).
    – Lucian
    Commented May 2, 2020 at 10:46

4 Answers 4


This is how the EXB explains it "You Samaritans worship something you don’t understand. We [Jews] understand what we worship, because salvation comes from the Jews [because the Messiah who brings salvation comes through the Jews]." The We here is The Jewish people.


I have no problem seeing this passage as Jesus speaking for the Jews and I can see the larger argument about why this passage does not challenge the wide and consistent Scriptural affirmation of deity for the Son. But it raises for me the mystery of the Trinity that is always beyond revelation and our human understanding. By this I mean, we are given very little information beyond the basic description of the 3 in 1. We have no true understanding (and perhaps we shouldn't even expect to understand) the union and intimate interaction within God. In one sense knowing more is probably none of our business because the interactions of the persons belong to the Trinity. I think of how Moses asked to see the glory of God but was only given a partial view 'from behind'. At least for now it is more than we can stand and, when you consider how much we 'see' in Scripture and the Gospel, we should be so grateful for what we have been given already.


After we analyze the text of John 4:22 [KJV] : "We know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews" - The identification of "We" is clearly "the Jews" (Ha-Yehudim, הַיְּהוּדִ֜ים ).

Although Samaritans of 1st century AD were offered atonement for sins by their faith in the God of Yisrael, Yeshua the son of Yehozadak criticized 5th century BC Samaritans who opposed the re-construction of Yerushalem ( יְרוּשְׁלֶ֑ם) and God's 2nd temple in [Ezra 4:3]. - John 4:22 is referencing Yeshua's rebuke of ancient Samaritans in Ezra 4:3 : "It is not for you and for us to build a House for our God, but we ourselves shall build for the Lord God of Israel."

Jesus of Nazareth is revealing Himself to be the cornerstone of a new temple literally raised up by "Salvation" (Yeshua, ישׁוּעָֽ) from God's Right-Hand through the descendants of Yehudah, passed down to Boaz as a Guardian Redeemer, to King David's as defender of Yisrael against the Philistines, to Yeshua of Nazareth as Messiah eternally atoning for Yisrael's sins - for Yeshua is from Ha-Yehudim ( הַיְּהוּדִ֜ים).


Jesus here speaks on behalf of Jews, and Himself as a Jew according to flesh, for He, although being equal to the Father (Phil. 2:6), became man, having adopted the entirety of human nature, and man of the nation of Jews, to which nation Lord entrusted prophets who preached about the advent of the Messiah.

Now, does Jesus worship God, if He has for all eternity and infinity of infinities been equal to God and thus co-worshiped with God as being Himself God (John 1:1)? The answer is yes, in His human nature Jesus worshipped God, for healthy condition of human nature is a condition of worshiping God, that is to say, the human nature being created and finite should unite itself, or rather, should willingly allow God to unite it (the created human nature) to Him, the Uncreated and Infinite, and the essence of this unity on the part of the finite essence is that of worship and adoration. If we can freely say on the testimony of the Gospels that Jesus was fortified by an angel (Luke 22:43), of course we can also say that Jesus worshiped God, for in both cases the Gospels speak about His human nature; and when Jesus is tempted by devil who says to Him to worship him for the transient goods of this world, and He rebukes him saying "it is written worship only God" (Luke 4:8), of course by this words He asserts that He worships God through His human nature and does not submit this nature to the idolatry, for idolatry is a ruin of soul, and how could He, the Healer and Saviour of created souls of all humans, submit His own created human soul to a ruin? He showed perfection of human nature in Himself and the perfection of human nature is in worshiping God.

But is it possible to worship Father without Him? No, it is, so to say, an ontological impossibility, just as it is an ontological impossibility for the Father to create universe without the Son. And that is why Jesus teaches and warns against the wrongheadedness of thinking that it is possible to worship the Father while denying Him - the Son, Jesus Christ, for whoever denies Son does not have Father (1 John 2:23) and in fact to Both the same worship applies (John 5:23).

The only possible conclusion is that Jesus' created human nature worships the Father together with the Son, just as the same human nature was created by Father together with the Son. This should not lead one to a heresy of Nestorianism and claim that there were two personalities in Jesus - one co-eternal with the Father, the Son-Logos, while the other - temporal and created person of Jesus who worshiped the Father and the Son. No! That is the Nestorian blasphemous Christology. There is only one divine Person in Jesus, the one co-eternal with the Father, while this Person through His human nature thirsts water, gets hungry, gets tired, feels pain, is fortified by an angel, undergoes death and worships God.

To the same Samaritan He says that He is to be worshiped along with the Father, for what else is His statement: "but whoever drinks the water I give them will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give them will become in them a spring of water welling up to eternal life"? (John 4:14) Only that soul thirsts that is unsatisfied, but only God can satisfy soul, for human soul is finite and created but the purpose of its creation is to be united most intimately to the Uncreated, to God; and here Jesus says that He is the very one who can satisfy soul, which is a clear claim of His divinity, which He also confirmed by telling her her inner thoughts, which, the knowledge of human heart, is a proper feature of God.

Thus, Jesus is uniting Himself fully with the Jewish people to whom is entrusted knowledge of how to properly to worship God, but at the same time He claims His own divine, that is to say, worshipable status, for who has the Son as the "object" of worship, simultaneously has also the Father and vice versa, for nobody comes to the Father but through the Son (John 14:6) and nobody comes to the Son but through the Father (John 6:37, 44-45).

  • @Down-voter Hi my anonymous reader! You must possess tons of arguments for substantiating your down-vote, for to down-vote otherwise, with no rational reasons, is shameful and ignoble; so, please, be not lazy and lay down them, your arguments, to me, they are most welcome! Commented Apr 4, 2022 at 12:16

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.