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Exodus 33:19, (DRB):

He answered: I will shew thee all good, and I will proclaim in the name of the Lord before thee: and I will have mercy on whom I will, and I will be merciful to whom it shall please me.

Exodus 33:19, (KJV):

  1. And he said, I will make all my goodness pass before thee, and I will proclaim the name of the LORD before thee; and will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will shew mercy on whom I will shew mercy.

The highly authentic and reliable versions of the English Bible, i.e: DRB and KJV say that:

The LORD will proclaim the name of the LORD.

Logically, the LORD should say:

I will proclaim my name...

Or,

I will proclaim the name of mine...

Are there two LORDs belong to each other and have the same Name?

Actually, there are many non literal, less reliable, less authentic translations having ONE LORD.

These translations for example, say:

I will proclaim my name...

Thus, how to solve this problem?, The problem of Two LORDs?

We should read the Bible carefully to understand what the Revelation is trying to say.

  • The LXX reads καὶ καλέσω ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματί μου Κύριος, "and I will call by my name 'Lord'". Translations having "I will proclaim my name …" are probably following this ancient reading. – Ryan Stephen Apr 24 at 19:07
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    @RyanStephen this verse needs diligent search to: 1- make sure of the original text. 2- to make sure of the right translation. 3- make sure of the right exegsis. – salah Apr 24 at 19:15
  • I cause all My goodness to pass before thy face, and have called concerning the Name of Jehovah before thee, and favoured him whom I favour, and loved him whom I love.' [Young's Literal - Exodus 33:19] – Nigel J Apr 24 at 21:43
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This question has multiple parts so let me deal with each one.

First, there appears to be little dispute about the Hebrew text of Ex 33:19, which says (literally NASB is a good version here):

And He said, "I Myself will make all My goodness pass before you, and will proclaim the name of the LORD before you; and I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show compassion on whom I will show compassion."

Second, as correctly suggested in the question, there is also no debate about who the antecedent of "he" is here - it is the LORD, namely, YHWH - Jehovah Himself. This was actually done and recorded in Ex 34:5-8 which says:

And the LORD descended in a cloud, stood with him there, and proclaimed His name, the LORD. Then the LORD passed in front of Moses and called out:

“The LORD, the LORD God, is compassionate and gracious, slow to anger, abounding in loving devotion and faithfulness, maintaining loving devotion to a thousand generations, forgiving iniquity, transgression, and sin. Yet He will by no means excuse the guilty; He will visit the iniquity of the fathers on their children and grandchildren to the third and fourth generations.”

Moses immediately bowed down to the ground and worshiped

Third, this means that we have the LORD proclaiming the name of the LORD. This sort of thing is not unique in the OT. Here are several more examples that provide further support for YHWH being more than one person but still being ONE.

  • Zech 2:6-12 – the LORD (= YHWH) claims three times that He has been sent by the LORD.
  • Isa 48:11-16 – again, the LORD has been sent by the LORD.
  • Isa 63:7-10 – the LORD (described as a Father) sends His divine servant (the angel of His presence) and His Holy Spirit who is grieved (compare Ps 78:40).
  • Ex 23:20 – the angel of the LORD’s presence has the power to forgive sin (but will not). This and the previous reference clearly make the angel of the presence the pre-incarnate Jesus.
  • Hos 1:7 – the LORD saves by the LORD their God.
  • Prov 30:1-4 – the Son of God is as unfathomable as God Himself.
  • Psalm 110 – “The LORD says to my Lord” – Jesus asked about this Psalm on how someone could be both Son and Lord of David – see Matt 22:44, Mark 12:36, Luke 20:42, Acts 2:34.
  • Ps 45 (quoted by Heb 1) talks about the “Son” being God in addition to God the Father.
  • Gen 1:1, 2, 26, 11:6, 7 – God refers to Himself in the plural.

There are still more examples that could be quoted under the general heading of the Angel of the LORD actually being the LORD and probably (preincarnate) Jesus such as: Gen 16:7-13, 22:11-17, 32:24-30, 48:16, Ex 3:2-6, 32:34, Num 22:22-35, Josh 5:13-15, Judg 2:1-4, 6:11-23, 13:3-23, Isa 63:9, Dan 3:25, 28, Hos 12:4, 5, Zech 3:1-7, Mal 3:1.

A closely related phrase, “Angel of God” who is clearly God as in Gen 6:13, 8:15, 9:8, 17, 15:13, 17:3, 4, 21:12, 16-21, 35:1, 10, Ex 4:3-8, 6:2, 23:20, 21, Deut 1:6, 1 Kings 12:22, etc. See also Acts 10:3, 4, Ga 4:14.

Thus, unsurprisingly, Jesus is the messenger to the human race and underlines the importance that the Godhead places upon such messages.

(This is not to suggest that Jesus is an angel in the sense that He is less that God; far from it! However, the Greek and Hebrew word for “angel” simply means messenger and it is in this sense that Jesus is the messenger in the above passages.)

For completeness I list the text of the LXX at this point. Note that the LXX as we now have it does not always reflect the Hebrew text we now have - they are sometimes are sometimes noticeably different because either the LXX uses a different Hebrew text or reflects bias on the part of the LXX translators.

καὶ εἶπεν· ἐγὼ παρελεύσομαι πρότερός σου τῇ δόξῃ μου καὶ καλέσω τῷ ὀνόματί μου, Κύριος ἐναντίον σου· καὶ ἐλεήσω ὃν ἂν ἐλεῶ, καὶ οἰκτειρήσω ὃν ἂν οἰκτείρω. = And he said, I will pass by before thee with my glory, and I will call by my name, the Lord, before thee; and I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and will have pity on whom I will have pity.

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    So, you accept KJV, DRB and NASB in this verse, you also accept that: the LORD will proclaim the name of the LORD. There may be two Copies of the same Person. – salah Apr 24 at 22:35
  • I hope you add some additions to your answer, to be much more better.+1. – salah Apr 24 at 22:43
  • There are not two copies of the same person but more than one person who is God and YHWH as explained above. – Dottard Apr 24 at 23:04
  • I have some theological approaches, some of which are esoteric and some other are of the mainstream Christianity. – salah Apr 24 at 23:28
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Let us examine what the scripture say. Mark 12:28-30 of the American Standard Version says, 28 And one of the scribes came, and heard them questioning together, and knowing that he had answered them well, asked him, What commandment is the first of all? 29 Jesus answered, The first is, [a]Hear, O Israel; [b]The Lord our God, the Lord is one: 30 and thou shalt love the Lord thy God [c]with all thy heart, and [d]with all thy soul, and [e]with all thy mind, and [f]with all thy strength.

In Mark 12:29, Jesus quoted Deuteronomy 6:4 Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah: American Standard Version. How many Jehovahs are there? Jesus also quoted Deuteronomy 6:16 when he was tempted as recorded in Matthew 4:7. If we infer Jesus is the YHWH (translated as Lord) then how do we harmonize our inference with James 1:13 God cannot be tempted, with Hebrews 4:15 Jesus has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet he did not sin.?

If we claim that Jesus is 100% man and 100% God, how do we harmonize that claim with Malachi 3:6 For I am Jehovah, I have not changed, Young's Literal Translation and James 1:17? Every gift which is good, and every perfect boon, is from above, and comes down from the Father, who is the source of all Light. In Him there is no variation nor the slightest suggestion of change Weymouth New Testament' Jesus himself said that the Father is the one true God, John 17:3. The Father is greater than Jesus, John 14: 28. Jesus will subject himself to his Father. 1 Corinthians 15:28.

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  • Whoa! Please edit this to add paragraphs and quote formatting for the Bible verses. – curiousdannii Apr 25 at 11:07

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